Sorry if this has been discussed elsewhere.
The match betwen KK and LQ in the last ball there was a catch taken and people thought match was over. When the catch was taken a run had not been completed (but the run was completed after the catch).
Now after all the hoo-ha it transpired from the 3rd umpire that it was a no-ball and ball had to be bowled again with a free hit. But they disallowed the run. They said it was in line with the rules.
I disagareed strongly. IMO since it was a no-ball the catch was null and void (irrespective of when the ball was declared no-ball). Therefore the run should have counted.
What do you guys think? I did not agree with their interprtation of the rules; I think they got it wrong big time.
The match betwen KK and LQ in the last ball there was a catch taken and people thought match was over. When the catch was taken a run had not been completed (but the run was completed after the catch).
Now after all the hoo-ha it transpired from the 3rd umpire that it was a no-ball and ball had to be bowled again with a free hit. But they disallowed the run. They said it was in line with the rules.
I disagareed strongly. IMO since it was a no-ball the catch was null and void (irrespective of when the ball was declared no-ball). Therefore the run should have counted.
What do you guys think? I did not agree with their interprtation of the rules; I think they got it wrong big time.