Cover Drive Six
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Islamic Sharia law? Is this what Muslims are fighting to implement in Western countries 

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aik aur suqrat ka phoophar aya saffron chadar orh ker. lolIslamic Sharia law? Is this what Muslims are fighting to implement in Western countries![]()
As to those women on whose part ye fear disloyalty and ill-conduct, admonish them (first), (Next), refuse to share their beds, (And last) strike them; but if they return to obedience, seek not against them Means (of annoyance): For Allah is Most High, great (above you all).aik aur suqrat ka phoophar aya saffron chadar orh ker. lol
wrong thread. now buzz off!
, “The Prophet never beat any of his wives or servants; he would not avenge for himself except when the prohibitions of God had been violated, only then would he retaliate" (Muslim)."I am really trying hard to make head or tails of this statement but I am unable to do so.
Allah is the arabic word for God. Which part is confusing you to think there are two of them?
How is it a circular reference?, “The Prophet never beat any of his wives or servants; he would not avenge for himself except when the prohibitions of God had been violated, only then would he retaliate" (Muslim)."
In the above statement" prophet have never avenged unless prohibitions of God happened".Are Allah and God are two distinct things here? Or is it a circular reference?
So? I missed the part where sharia is being enforced in western lands in the basis of this edict - according to your post I originally quoted.As to those women on whose part ye fear disloyalty and ill-conduct, admonish them (first), (Next), refuse to share their beds, (And last) strike them; but if they return to obedience, seek not against them Means (of annoyance): For Allah is Most High, great (above you all).
How is it a circular reference?
I still don’t understand exactly what you are quoting here? What sentence are you quoting that has both “God” and “Allah” in it. Are you quoting a poster or one of the Hadees that was quoted? Not sureIf both god and Allah are same in the above sentence, then its a circular reference rt?
fair enough, i understand your point, that nuance was inferred incorrectly in what i wrote.Dear Brother @ElRaja
I think you missed my point because I didn't articulate it properly. I was responding to your comment and it is specific to these few words
Hitting, beating, psychological shock, physical action, physically pushing away whatever with this and in this state of mind is impermissible in Islam.
This verse is in the context of Nushuz and not physically beating, harming randomly because my Roti is cold...
numerous learned scholars have spent their entire lifes work interpreting and understanding religious texts, ijtehad for that reason is limited to qualified mujtahids, and once you have concensus opinions, you have to respect them, are you saying that all the scholars who interpret it as a physical strike are wrong?The Quran was revealed in Arabic, and because Arabic is a deeply nuanced language, much of its precise meaning, depth, and linguistic beauty can be lost when it is translated into other languages.
Just as an example, you’ll notice that some words or phrases sound perfect in Urdu, but when translated into English, they don’t carry the same impact or exact meaning.
Just look at the word “strike.” It doesn’t only mean hitting someone with a hand or a sword it can also mean things like “to strike a pose,” “to strike a deal,” translor even workers going on strike.
The same single word carries multiple meanings depending on the context in which it is used.
This shows how language works: words are not always fixed to one definition, and their true meaning depends on how they are understood within a sentence, situation, or cultural context.
so you ran away from @emranabbasWhat you blabbering about red dot?
I still don’t understand exactly what you are quoting here? What sentence are you quoting that has both “God” and “Allah” in it. Are you quoting a poster or one of the Hadees that was quoted? Not sure
fair enough, i understand your point, that nuance was inferred incorrectly in what i wrote.
numerous learned scholars have spent their entire lifes work interpreting and understanding religious texts, ijtehad for that reason is limited to qualified mujtahids, and once you have concensus opinions, you have to respect them, are you saying that all the scholars who interpret it as a physical strike are wrong?
Also, not all scholars’ opinions are taken equally.Which scholars have actually interpreted this as physical beating?
I can provide numerous sources and scholarly opinions that interpret it differently particularly from those who have studied and deeply understand the Arabic language.
The idea of “wife beating” is largely a subcontinental interpretation seen in places like India, Pakistan, and Bangladesh, whereas in many Arab cultures the understanding and treatment of wives is quite different.
And many Arabic words can carry multiple meanings depending on the context for example, the word mawla can be translated as friend, master, or even protector its the context that matters
This was the exact quote mentioned by the @Ball Blazer .
It was reported that lady ‘Aisha said, “The Prophet never beat any of his wives or servants; in fact, he did not strike any living being with his hand except in the cause of God add he would not avenge for himself except when the prohibitions of God had been violated, only then would he retaliate" (Muslim).