Slog
Senior Test Player
- Joined
- Feb 15, 2015
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In the Prophet’s (pbuh) time riba or usury usually referred to when someone would charge an unreasonable excess amount for loaning money. Riba in the Arabic language refers to ‘excesses’
In the current modern financial system; the prevailing interest or discount rate is usually a reasonable rate based on economic fundamentals and tied to the money supply. It has close link to the inflation rate. Also it is standardized in most economies. So it is not Olden times when a lender is taking advantage and charging excess rates.
To me it seems that what was referred to as riba in those times and what is the interest rate today has very little similarity (perhaps at most rates on credit cards are excessive)
When a person owns a house (ie an asset) and they let someone else use it formally they charge them an amount (ie the rent) driven by market forces. Similarly if I have a car (the asset) and I rent it out I will charge an amount based on the prevailing market.
Cash is also an asset similar to the previous two examples. When you are giving them for use to someone doesn’t the logic follow that you should also be able to charge rent (ie interest payments) on that asset?
In the current modern financial system; the prevailing interest or discount rate is usually a reasonable rate based on economic fundamentals and tied to the money supply. It has close link to the inflation rate. Also it is standardized in most economies. So it is not Olden times when a lender is taking advantage and charging excess rates.
To me it seems that what was referred to as riba in those times and what is the interest rate today has very little similarity (perhaps at most rates on credit cards are excessive)
When a person owns a house (ie an asset) and they let someone else use it formally they charge them an amount (ie the rent) driven by market forces. Similarly if I have a car (the asset) and I rent it out I will charge an amount based on the prevailing market.
Cash is also an asset similar to the previous two examples. When you are giving them for use to someone doesn’t the logic follow that you should also be able to charge rent (ie interest payments) on that asset?