I think you have provided us with a very good example of how it should be done.
So basically this is an example of how governments can make accommodations for religious beliefs in their laws and constitution. UK laws, I am assuming, are very strict about possessing weapons, guns, knives, etc unlike here in the US where every grandma and grandpa are running around with rifles and handguns tucked in their under garments. lol
But karpan or curved knife, is an essential article of faith and is frequently gifted within Sikhs. Very good so far? Lets move forward:
So the laws included this part as a defense for possession of such a knife in their laws if a person happens to be Sikh. GREAT! Wonderful.
And I cite:
(5)In this paragraph—
“curved sword” means a weapon to which section 141 of the Criminal Justice Act 1988 applies by virtue of paragraph 1(r);
“Sikh” means a follower of the Sikh religion.”
Source:
https://www.legislation.gov.uk/ukpga/2019/17/section/47
What is extremely pertinent and important to note here, in the light or the spirit of our discussion: that the British have basically recognized there is a need for this reservation for the Sikhs. They took it and accepted it.
Nowhere in this document, does it describe how they evaluated whether possession of a knife is an essential article of faith for Sikhism. They did not deliberate that part,
they did not pass judgment on whether it is necessary or not. In fact, it is rather dangerous to possess a weapon and yet they took it for the face value AND made reservations for it.
and that is my point. Courts can make such accommodations in laws,
but its not their job to deliberate whether a certain religion really needs a certain "article of faith". Now if you believe (@itachi) that is not true and the UK courts actually conducted a deliberation in
which they pondered whether the non possession of a knife, make a Sikh a non-Sikh, I would welcome you to share your evidence to back your point.