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Islam and slavery


The article completely misses out on mentioning the torture of the slave girl's husband; Kinana al-Riba.

"Kinana al-Rabi, who had the custody of the treasure of Banu Nadir, was brought to the apostle who asked him about it. He denied that he knew where it was. A Jew came (Tabari says "was brought"), to the apostle and said that he had seen Kinana going round a certain ruin every morning early. When the apostle said to Kinana, "Do you know that if we find you have it I shall kill you?" He said "Yes". The apostle gave orders that the ruin was to be excavated and some of the treasure was found. When he asked him about the rest he refused to produce it, so the apostle gave orders to al-Zubayr Al-Awwam, "Torture him until you extract what he has." So he kindled a fire with flint and steel on his chest until he was nearly dead. Then the apostle delivered him to Muhammad b. Maslama and he struck off his head, in revenge for his brother Mahmud." - Muhammad Ibn Ishaq, 515
 
The article completely misses out on mentioning the torture of the slave girl's husband; Kinana al-Riba.

"Kinana al-Rabi, who had the custody of the treasure of Banu Nadir, was brought to the apostle who asked him about it. He denied that he knew where it was. A Jew came (Tabari says "was brought"), to the apostle and said that he had seen Kinana going round a certain ruin every morning early. When the apostle said to Kinana, "Do you know that if we find you have it I shall kill you?" He said "Yes". The apostle gave orders that the ruin was to be excavated and some of the treasure was found. When he asked him about the rest he refused to produce it, so the apostle gave orders to al-Zubayr Al-Awwam, "Torture him until you extract what he has." So he kindled a fire with flint and steel on his chest until he was nearly dead. Then the apostle delivered him to Muhammad b. Maslama and he struck off his head, in revenge for his brother Mahmud." - Muhammad Ibn Ishaq, 515

Sounds like an episode of 24. Imagine if we had 3D technology back then.
 
Why should your right hand possess another human being, with you being their master and them being your slave? Why did Islam and the Prophet not ban slavery outright instead of just tinkering with some of the worst aspects of it? It goes against every principle of dignity, humanity, equality, and everyone being born equal in God's eyes.
Slavery was not just capturing human beings like you would capture animals and turning human beings into slaves, but a child born to a slave also became a slave right from birth.

Why did Allah not make slavery Haram? Because the need for it is there in certain situations and circumstances mainly war I think maybe I am wrong but the only type of people who could be slaved after the establishment of Islam as the state in madinah were people captured during war, The muslims were allowed to capture slaves and keep them mainly because the enemy would capture the Muslims so it was handy in prisoner exchanges.

But their are means available to the slaves in which they can free themselves, one is through a contract, another is when a female slave who has given birth to the child of the owner are set free when the owner dies, if the owner hits the slave than the slave is set free, if the owner can not maintain the slaves than they are set free and many other options.
 
The abolition of slavery is NOT against Islam and doesn't not contradict its teachings. I suggest you don't waste your life's precious moments on this. You surely have better things to worry about.

Like how many wickets Saeed Ajmal picks up in country cricket? What kind of lame response is this?

Also I never suggested that abolition of slavery is against islam - I am not too knowledgeable of Islamic law so I would not make such an assertion. I don't know where you picked that up from.
 
Why did Allah not make slavery Haram? Because the need for it is there in certain situations and circumstances mainly war I think maybe I am wrong but the only type of people who could be slaved after the establishment of Islam as the state in madinah were people captured during war, The muslims were allowed to capture slaves and keep them mainly because the enemy would capture the Muslims so it was handy in prisoner exchanges.

But their are means available to the slaves in which they can free themselves, one is through a contract, another is when a female slave who has given birth to the child of the owner are set free when the owner dies, if the owner hits the slave than the slave is set free, if the owner can not maintain the slaves than they are set free and many other options.

And those born into it...
 
The article completely misses out on mentioning the torture of the slave girl's husband; Kinana al-Riba.

"Kinana al-Rabi, who had the custody of the treasure of Banu Nadir, was brought to the apostle who asked him about it. He denied that he knew where it was. A Jew came (Tabari says "was brought"), to the apostle and said that he had seen Kinana going round a certain ruin every morning early. When the apostle said to Kinana, "Do you know that if we find you have it I shall kill you?" He said "Yes". The apostle gave orders that the ruin was to be excavated and some of the treasure was found. When he asked him about the rest he refused to produce it, so the apostle gave orders to al-Zubayr Al-Awwam, "Torture him until you extract what he has." So he kindled a fire with flint and steel on his chest until he was nearly dead. Then the apostle delivered him to Muhammad b. Maslama and he struck off his head, in revenge for his brother Mahmud." - Muhammad Ibn Ishaq, 515

Apart from the fact that Ibn Ishaq/Ibn Hisham aren't "authorities" in Sunni Islam (something the website from where you copy-paste doesn't mentions, obviously):

It is related by the biographers "that Kinana, chief of the Jews of Khyber, and his cousin had kept back, in contravention of their compact, a portion of their riches. On the discovery of this attempt at imposition, Kinana was subjected to cruel torture—'fire being placed upon his breast till his breath had almost departed'—in the hope that he would confess where the rest of his treasures were concealed. Mahomet then gave command, and the heads of the chief and his cousin were severed from their bodies."

The story of Kinana's being subjected to extortion and put to death for hiding some treasure, for which he had contravened his contract, is altogether a spurious one. Kinana was executed in retaliation for treacherously killing Mahmud, the brother of Mohammad-bin-Moslama, to whom he was made over for execution. There is one tradition, without any authority, to the effect, that Zobeir was producing fire on Kinana's breast by the friction of flint and steel. This, if it be a fact, does not show that it was done by Mohammad's direction and approval. On the contrary, there are several traditions from the Prophet himself in which he has forbidden to punish any one with fire. It is related by Bokharee from Ibn Abbás, that Mohammad said, "God only can punish with fire." It is also related by Abu Daood from Abdullah, that the Prophet said, "No body ought to punish any one with fire except the Lord of the fire."

Maulvi Chirag Ali, A critical exposition of the popular Jihad

Extended to animals:

Ibn Mas'ud (May Allah be pleased with him) reported: We were with the Messenger of Allah (pbuh) in a journey when he drew apart (to relieve nature). In his absence, we saw a red bird which had two young ones with it. We caught them and the red mother bird came, beating the earth with its wings. In the meantime the Prophet (pbuh) returned and said, "Who has put this bird to distress on account of its young? Return them to her." He (pbuh) also noticed a mound of ants which we had burnt up. He asked, "Who has set fire to this?" We replied: "We have done so." He (pbuh) said, "None can chastise with fire except the Rubb of the fire." [Abu Dawud]

Imam Nawawi (ra), Riyad as Saliheen, n°1610

In fact, fire or not, torture itself has been forbidden in Islam:

It has been narrated that Hisham bin Hakim bin Hizam (May Allah be pleased with them) happened to pass by some (non-Arab) farmers of Syria who had been made to stand in the sun, and olive oil was poured on their heads. He said: "What is the matter?" He was told that they had been detained for the non-payment of Jizyah. (Another narration says that they were being tortured for not having paid Al-Kharaj). Thereupon Hisham said: "I bear testimony to the fact that I heard the Messenger of Allah (pbuh) saying, 'Allah will torment those who torment people in the world."' Then he proceeded towards their Amir and reported this Hadith to him. The Amir then issued orders for their release. [Muslim]

Imam Nawawi (ra), Riyad as Saliheen, n°1606
 
If this Mullah doesn't speak for all Islam, does the Prophet speak for all Islam?

Dear Raju Rocket sb, the quran has all the answers to all the problems people face but one has to take the trouble to read it for its proper understanding. In fact before even starting to read the quran one has to become aware of all the necessities relating the understanding of the quran otherwise it is not possible to know what the quran is actually saying.

Learning starts with brain and senses and the environment in which one is born and interacts and it does not start with the quran. The quran is a book of guidance for those who are already to receive the guidance. if you are going to manage a factory you need guidance from the owner but that guidance will make no sense to you if you are not already familiar with what you need to know already about factory management. There is no sense in asking about each and everything one by one because this not the way to learn things. Look for formulas and then see how those formulas are used to do sums rather than running to the teacher for each and every sum.

It is a big mistake to equate a messenger from Allah to a mullah. A messenger of Allah is mouth piece of Allah but not the mullah. However not each and everything attributed to the messenger of Allah is necessary true.

Rulers, money lenders and mullahs have invented many things for their personal vested interests and attributed them to Allah, his scriptures and messengers in order to attack them or to get what they wanted by using their names.

So just because something harmful and destructive has been attributed to the prophet of Allah does not mean it is actually true. One or more of the reporters in the chain of narrators could be mistaken or lying. Not only that but chances are the actual saying has been misinterpreted. People who have misinterpreted the quran for centuries how can they be trusted for correct interpretation of the report hadith? I have given examples in my above posts already.

The foundational source of islam is quran not hadith or fiqh. Just as there are rules for authentic interpretation of the quran so there are rules for authentic interpretation of hadith. I have explained this already.

I have had some discussions here already and explained some things in detail so if anyone is interested one should search out those posts or visit the provided link to see how I interpret the quran and why I do that. This does not mean I have answered all the questions but I put people on the road to discovery whereby people can become sensible enough to find out more all by themselves.

Never think the quran is a willy nilly book that a sincere person can brush aside. It is highly sophisticated book and that much should be very obvious from the way the quran uses the language and the way the quran puts forth the information. It uses language according to philosophy of language, it uses scientific information according to philosophy of science and it uses historical accounts according to philosophy of history. It talks about social and political sciences as well as economic philosophy and so on and so forth. This is why islam is not a religion but a way of life that deal with real life issues.

regards and all the best.
 
And those born into it...

Yh if someone owns both male and female slaves than he can marry them and their children will be born into slavery.

But the owners child with any slave girl is not a slave because he/she will be a muslim.

By the way I only use slaves here for sake of argument the Prophet(pbuh) did not call them slaves.

Another point I would like to make here is that in Islam slaves can earn a living, education, get married and buy their freedom.

Another prospective is of the one who owns the slave, it is more expensive for him to keep slaves, as he is responsible for their clothing, food and shelter and it is not typical conditions of slaves where they barely get food to eat, or wear the same clothing all the time and sleep in chains but Muslim are directed to by the saying of the prophet to

And your slaves ! see that you feed them such food as you eat yourselves and dress them what you yourself wear. And if they commit a “mistake which you are not inclined to forgive then sell them, for they are the servants of Allah and are not to be tormented! "
 
Yh if someone owns both male and female slaves than he can marry them and their children will be born into slavery.
And there is the crux of the matter.

If the purpose of Islam was to try and address the issues of the time in the easiest/best way possible/acceptable to the tribalistic society at the time, then sure, it may not have been possible to ban slavery with immediate effect, or even at all. And that is quite a logical argument.

However, to those arguing that the Prophet lived a 'perfect' life, and everything within Islam was/is "for all time", what answer would you give if a muslim stated that he was going to start keeping slaves because it was allowed to do so by Islam, and cited the fact that slavery existed under the jurisdiction of Islam and was in fact carried out by the Prophet's own companions and followers, ie accepted and condoned by Islam and the Prophet himself?
 
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There is no compulsion in forcing someone to accept Islam that much is established but if someone apostates and turns his back on his community than the death penalty can be applied.
In other words you can enter but never leave?
 
This has been done to death too


In Judaism you can never enter as you have to be born into it, 'the chosen people'
Technically Hinduism too I believe (or so said a previous Hindu colleague at work).
But lets not get into any of that, and lets stick to the topic in hand.
 
This has been done to death too


In Judaism you can never enter as you have to be born into it, 'the chosen people'

The Quran says all previous Abrahamic religions have been corrupted and Islam is the final religion, then why compare the final/best religion to a corrupted one.
 
The Quran says all previous Abrahamic religions have been corrupted and Islam is the final religion, then why compare the final/best religion to a corrupted one.

We're comparing Islam here to ancient greek and ancient Indian slavery too, in case you felt left out
 
Nice to see you had no answer :91:

Noone is attacking, questioning something's existence isn't attacking it. As for ''Islam was there it will be there'' talk there were a lot of religions in the past, they all vanish and get replaced by new ones.

This is getting absurd now.
 
Islam banned the eating of pork, the drinking of alcohol, and many other things that were, at the time, detrimental to the health of the individual or detrimental to the functioning of society as a whole.

Islam and the Prophet (pbuh) say that everyone is born equal in the eyes of God. In which case why didn't Islam/ the Prophet ban slavery outright just as other things were banned outright?

"But the rights of the slaves were improved under Islam" some would argue. As if "everyone being born equal" only applies unless you were a slave or born to a slave.

So the question is, Why didn't Islam / the Prophet ban slavery outright? Is that not a stain on Islam? Does God condone the owning of one human being by another?

Discuss.

Interesting question, isn´t it? What is your solution to it? Or in other words, how would you answer this question? Bear in mind, I would have never asked you this question had you been amongst those who criticise Islam. I ask you since from what I understand, you are a Muslim yourself.

''Those times?''

Don't we get constantly told how Islam is for all times?

I still have this question, if the prophet was a perfect example then all of the practices must be perfect as well, therefore context doesn't matter and hence the practices are justified. If you disagree then it's the opposite, so what would it mean to the role of the prophet?

The above two posts are the best in this thread. Sealed!
 
Slavery is wrong. Whichever way you put it and try to justify it.

They were medieval laws like Shariah law and its best you ignore them instead of trying to justify and sugarcoating it. Accept they are wrong move on.

There is no shame in accepting what is blatantly wrong and shameful. This is why I believe we need more humanity and less religious beliefs. Hardcore religious beliefs suppress our thoughts and basic love towards humanity.
 
The Quran says all previous Abrahamic religions have been corrupted and Islam is the final religion, then why compare the final/best religion to a corrupted one.

Perhaps it was the final Abrahamic religion and then Allah had enough? The Quran also says that if the believers weren't up to scratch he would replace them with a better people (or something to that effect) and perhaps that was a polytheistic religion, although none comes to my mind right now...hmmm...let me think...would Hinduism count as one of those? I think we need a new thread.
 
Interesting question, isn´t it? What is your solution to it? Or in other words, how would you answer this question? Bear in mind, I would have never asked you this question had you been amongst those who criticise Islam. I ask you since from what I understand, you are a Muslim yourself.
DHONI183;, Hope the following answers your question. Especially the last post quoted
Originally Posted by Yossarian
Robert, my argument is part of a wider argument, ie that Islamic laws and rules were designed to address the prevailing issues in the society at the time, and the religious texts should be seen in that context, should not be taken literally but metaphorically, and the easiest manner that existed in getting an uneducated, tribal populace of the times to obey the rules was to say 'God has decreed it'.
Originally Posted by Yossarian
So you agree that the rules and laws within Islam were for practical reasons to address the issues of the time in the most acceptable way as possible to the masses as well as the rich and powerful?
Also this throws a spanner into the theory that Islamic rules and laws are for "all time".
Originally Posted by Yossarian
As for Islam being based on practicality to address society's issues at the time and not on idealism or passing some mythical exam test for getting into heaven, that's something I agree with.

Questions like the OP sure does throw a spanner into the the thinking of all the nutcases who believe everything in Islam should be taken literally and not metaphorically.
And there is the crux of the matter.

If the purpose of Islam was to try and address the issues of the time in the easiest/best way possible/acceptable to the tribalistic society at the time, then sure, it may not have been possible to ban slavery with immediate effect, or even at all. And that is quite a logical argument.
 
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If I were to rate the 10 worst religious practices out there across all religions, the practice of having physical relations with female slaves, especially who are war captives and whose brother, father, husband etc. you might have killed in a war, would definitely be there.

The interpretation offered by the Ahmadiyya community and scholar Muhammad Asad was an interesting one of course, but as it is, it is not the traditional and the mainstream view.

DHONI183;, Hope the following answers your question. Especially the last post quoted

I have known your views in the past as well, which basically revolve around the idea that everything was meant for those times, that culture and that society. So what I gather is that slavery wasn´t forbidden by God and His Messenger (may God´s peace and blessings be upon him) but they left it in a hope that someone some 1400 years after will settle the issue on the Internet. *Ignore this if you like.*

Secondly, your view is a mixture of humanity and religion, which of course can never go hand in hand in all cases. "Everything was meant for that time" is an extremely convenient way to escape everything, but the issue is that who will decide that to what extent the practices were meant for that time? Let me be honest in my observation, this concept shivers the human heart and is something that you personally don´t like, but what if tomorrow we have a person telling us that even offering Salah five times a day, fasting, doing the Hajj etc. were practices meant for those times, or also the prohibition of consuming pork and alcohol? Can you give me a solid reason why gambling is forbidden? Go ahead in trying to convince me and I will try to see it from a logical point of view.

So whereas your "Everything was meant for those times" argument may allow you to live peacefully with your faith, and may also convince the non-Muslims in debates, but what if I say that this practice of having slaves, and particularly having physical relations with them, doesn´t sound nice for any era, any culture or society? So forget about its application in the modern times, first convince me how having physical relations with married women, or even unmarried, is justified after you have captured them having killed their relatives in a war?

Religions have nothing to do with logics and such human reasons. In fact, the belief in the Existence of God itself sounds very illogical and fallacious to many people. I believe in God though, firm is my faith in Him to the extent that it can never change.

If logics had so much to do with religions, then tell me how Shirk is an unforgivable offence but a Muslim who had murdered 100 people still might be forgiven - at least it stands a chance, even if it be one percent? How weird it will sound if you come up with the explanation that this too was meant for those times!

As far are metaphorical is concerned, I can´t even tell what sort of metaphors would relate to the issue raised in this thread.

Robert, my argument is part of a wider argument, ie that Islamic laws and rules were designed to address the prevailing issues in the society at the time, and the religious texts should be seen in that context, should not be taken literally but metaphorically, and the easiest manner that existed in getting an uneducated, tribal populace of the times to obey the rules was to say 'God has decreed it'.

So, don´t you think that "God has decreed that slavery is forbidden" wouldn´t have worked? Instead of people being told to change on the basis of God having ordered this and this, the case in hand is a complete reverse, which being that the religion compromised with prevailing practice. This argument doesn´t make much sense.

Besides, wasn´t drinking a prevalent practice practised to the extreme? If that was forbidden, and it´s evident that Muslims gave up on this immediately, then why was a compromise made with slavery? Perhaps because it wasn´t seen as something very bad at all? Think....

Lastly, forgive me if I came across harsh. I apologise.
 
Slavery is wrong. Whichever way you put it and try to justify it.

They were medieval laws like Shariah law and its best you ignore them instead of trying to justify and sugarcoating it. Accept they are wrong move on.

There is no shame in accepting what is blatantly wrong and shameful. This is why I believe we need more humanity and less religious beliefs. Hardcore religious beliefs suppress our thoughts and basic love towards humanity.

It's more a case of not being able to keep up with society's changing perspective on what is humane and moral...
 
Secondly, your view is a mixture of humanity and religion, which of course can never go hand in hand in all cases. "Everything was meant for that time" is an extremely convenient way to escape everything, but the issue is that who will decide that to what extent the practices were meant for that time? Let me be honest in my observation, this concept shivers the human heart and is something that you personally don´t like, but what if tomorrow we have a person telling us that even offering Salah five times a day, fasting, doing the Hajj etc. were practices meant for those times, or also the prohibition of consuming pork and alcohol? Can you give me a solid reason why gambling is forbidden? Go ahead in trying to convince me and I will try to see it from a logical point of view.

So whereas your "Everything was meant for those times" argument may allow you to live peacefully with your faith, and may also convince the non-Muslims in debates

As far are metaphorical is concerned, I can´t even tell what sort of metaphors would relate to the issue raised in this thread.

Even though it has been discussed before about whether seeing the texts figuratively and not to be taken literally due to the context of trying to persuade the masses, the question still remains about whether there is any basis to this claim or argument.

When raising the point about metaphor, does that encompass all the so called basic mainstream beliefs, maintaining certain principles and understanding other bits differently or does it consider the whole belief system as a whole to be based on context, which raises the point about how to differentiate if that is the case?

Another downside to the argument is what backing does it really have and how can you be sure that this interpretation is the right one, even though that can be said for other ones as well. But I haven't heard of any such comprehensive interpretation being prevalent in such discourse (if i'm not wrong?) compared to more literal ones, surely there must be a reason to this? Even if it doesn't require any historical backing, what textual backing does it have and if there isn't any then it goes back to the question of how can you take this argument seriously if it doesn't have any basis to it. Finally, if it were to be taken figuratively, then what makes it unique?

Overall, it may sound convenient and make sense on the surface but looking at it more closely just goes to show that it isn't as simple as that. Although, I might be wrong with my question or assertions.
 
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If I were to rate the 10 worst religious practices out there across all religions, the practice of having physical relations with female slaves, especially who are war captives and whose brother, father, husband etc. you might have killed in a war, would definitely be there.

The interpretation offered by the Ahmadiyya community and scholar Muhammad Asad was an interesting one of course, but as it is, it is not the traditional and the mainstream view.



I have known your views in the past as well, which basically revolve around the idea that everything was meant for those times, that culture and that society. So what I gather is that slavery wasn´t forbidden by God and His Messenger (may God´s peace and blessings be upon him) but they left it in a hope that someone some 1400 years after will settle the issue on the Internet. *Ignore this if you like.*

Secondly, your view is a mixture of humanity and religion, which of course can never go hand in hand in all cases. "Everything was meant for that time" is an extremely convenient way to escape everything, but the issue is that who will decide that to what extent the practices were meant for that time? Let me be honest in my observation, this concept shivers the human heart and is something that you personally don´t like, but what if tomorrow we have a person telling us that even offering Salah five times a day, fasting, doing the Hajj etc. were practices meant for those times, or also the prohibition of consuming pork and alcohol? Can you give me a solid reason why gambling is forbidden? Go ahead in trying to convince me and I will try to see it from a logical point of view.

So whereas your "Everything was meant for those times" argument may allow you to live peacefully with your faith, and may also convince the non-Muslims in debates, but what if I say that this practice of having slaves, and particularly having physical relations with them, doesn´t sound nice for any era, any culture or society? So forget about its application in the modern times, first convince me how having physical relations with married women, or even unmarried, is justified after you have captured them having killed their relatives in a war?

Religions have nothing to do with logics and such human reasons. In fact, the belief in the Existence of God itself sounds very illogical and fallacious to many people. I believe in God though, firm is my faith in Him to the extent that it can never change.

If logics had so much to do with religions, then tell me how Shirk is an unforgivable offence but a Muslim who had murdered 100 people still might be forgiven - at least it stands a chance, even if it be one percent? How weird it will sound if you come up with the explanation that this too was meant for those times!

As far are metaphorical is concerned, I can´t even tell what sort of metaphors would relate to the issue raised in this thread.



So, don´t you think that "God has decreed that slavery is forbidden" wouldn´t have worked? Instead of people being told to change on the basis of God having ordered this and this, the case in hand is a complete reverse, which being that the religion compromised with prevailing practice. This argument doesn´t make much sense.

Besides, wasn´t drinking a prevalent practice practised to the extreme? If that was forbidden, and it´s evident that Muslims gave up on this immediately, then why was a compromise made with slavery? Perhaps because it wasn´t seen as something very bad at all? Think....

Lastly, forgive me if I came across harsh. I apologise.
Dhoni,
Unfortunately, you have totally missed the point(s) I was making. You appear to be accusing me of condoning these practices, whereas I am the one who raised the thread questioning why it was not banned totally/completely.
Islam banned the eating of pork, the drinking of alcohol, and many other things that were, at the time, detrimental to the health of the individual or detrimental to the functioning of society as a whole.

Islam and the Prophet (pbuh) say that everyone is born equal in the eyes of God. In which case why didn't Islam/ the Prophet ban slavery outright just as other things were banned outright?

"But the rights of the slaves were improved under Islam" some would argue. As if "everyone being born equal" only applies unless you were a slave or born to a slave.

So the question is, Why didn't Islam / the Prophet ban slavery outright? Is that not a stain on Islam? Does God condone the owning of one human being by another?

Discuss.
You appear to be throwing arguments at me, arguments that I have made myself in this very thread.
So, don´t you think that "God has decreed that slavery is forbidden" wouldn´t have worked? Instead of people being told to change on the basis of God having ordered this and this, the case in hand is a complete reverse, which being that the religion compromised with prevailing practice. This argument doesn´t make much sense.
Here are some of my responses to another poster
In other words, Islamic rules and laws were not absolutes, but were designed to address the issues of the times taking into account what was practically feasible in terms of the prevailing cirumstances? In which case, I agree.

So you agree that Islamic rules, Hadith et al should be looked at metaphorically and not be interpreted literally?

And yet we are constantly being told, in relation to other rules and laws within Islam, that Islam is for all time, one must not not under any circumstances question these rules and laws, and one will go to hell if one does not obey. If so, all that was needed was to say that God has decreed that slavery was a sin and was to be outlawed, slavery was haram, and thereby the Prophet, his companions and followers should start complying immediately and the rest can then follow if they wish to be called muslims.

In other words, Islam had the power to abolish slavery but chose to do it only on a selective basis?

Locking up prisoners of war is not making slaves of people. There is a legitimate reason for locking up prisoners of war, so that they will not continue fighting against you. And once the war is over, peace has prevailed, then they are freed and allowed to go back to their own people. But that's not the case here, and the slavery the OP is referring to is a totally different kind of enslavement - where human beings own other human beings in the same way they own dogs, camels, sheep and other animals.

But the whole purpose of any new messenger of God was to reset people on the right path. And therefore, surely, the whole purpose of the coming of Islam/ the Prophet (pbuh) was to eliminate these wrongs? But Islam did not ban slavery! At the very least it could have banned the Prophets companions and followers from keeping slaves, along with telling others that to be called muslims they must also refrain from having slaves. Since Islam/ the Prophet didn't do any of this, even though it could have been done by saying God had decreed it, it therefore means Islam/the Prophet condoned it. Ask any slave at the time whether he/she wishes to be treated 'a little bit better' or be totally freed from being a slave!

As for any childish arguments that "if freed they would have nowhere to go", then offer them to remain as servants, but not as slaves. a subtle but mega difference.

That is really scraping the barrel. Justifying the continuation of slavery on the basis that other religions had not banned it either.

Put whatever sugar coating on it, but the fact remains that Islam/the Prophet could have banned slavery - if not in the society as a whole then at the very least commanding the companions and followers to stop keeping slaves and to free them all, along with telling others that if they wished to be known as muslims then they too must stop owning other human beings.




It's a pity that you did'nt read my other posts in this thread before venting your anger - apparently in my direction.
 
In other words you can enter but never leave?

Generally accepted view by many scholars is that The punishment for apostasy is death, but others say it applies only in the case of treason, I personally agree with the second opinion.
 
And there is the crux of the matter.

If the purpose of Islam was to try and address the issues of the time in the easiest/best way possible/acceptable to the tribalistic society at the time, then sure, it may not have been possible to ban slavery with immediate effect, or even at all. And that is quite a logical argument.

However, to those arguing that the Prophet lived a 'perfect' life, and everything within Islam was/is "for all time", what answer would you give if a muslim stated that he was going to start keeping slaves because it was allowed to do so by Islam, and cited the fact that slavery existed under the jurisdiction of Islam and was in fact carried out by the Prophet's own companions and followers, ie accepted and condoned by Islam and the Prophet himself?

Islam from the time of the Prophet (PBUH) till the last day is for this period of time, There is no Islam only for 6th century arabia, it is till the last day That much is clear.

Slavery As Islams allows it is still acceptable today at times of war. The absence of An Islamic state or Khilafa which can wage wars where Islam allows is why you can't understand. If Today an Islamic state existed and waged war on let's say america for not giving up it's interest based economy and money lending on interest( Riba is a form of oppression so If it is not given up and no effort is made to do so The Islamic state will have to wage war against the money lenders) than If the opportunity did arise we could capture american soldiers and enslave them.
 
Even though it has been discussed before about whether seeing the texts figuratively and not to be taken literally due to the context of trying to persuade the masses, the question still remains about whether there is any basis to this claim or argument.

When raising the point about metaphor, does that encompass all the so called basic mainstream beliefs, maintaining certain principles and understanding other bits differently or does it consider the whole belief system as a whole to be based on context, which raises the point about how to differentiate if that is the case?

Another downside to the argument is what backing does it really have and how can you be sure that this interpretation is the right one, even though that can be said for other ones as well. But I haven't heard of any such comprehensive interpretation being prevalent in such discourse (if i'm not wrong?) compared to more literal ones, surely there must be a reason to this? Even if it doesn't require any historical backing, what textual backing does it have and if there isn't any then it goes back to the question of how can you take this argument seriously if it doesn't have any basis to it. Finally, if it were to be taken figuratively, then what makes it unique?

Overall, it may sound convenient and make sense on the surface but looking at it more closely just goes to show that it isn't as simple as that. Although, I might be wrong with my question or assertions.

[MENTION=4930]Yossarian[/MENTION] What are your thoughts?
 
Islam from the time of the Prophet (PBUH) till the last day is for this period of time, There is no Islam only for 6th century arabia, it is till the last day That much is clear.

Slavery As Islams allows it is still acceptable today at times of war. The absence of An Islamic state or Khilafa which can wage wars where Islam allows is why you can't understand. If Today an Islamic state existed and waged war on let's say america for not giving up it's interest based economy and money lending on interest( Riba is a form of oppression so If it is not given up and no effort is made to do so The Islamic state will have to wage war against the money lenders) than If the opportunity did arise we could capture american soldiers and enslave them.

So, you want to wage war against a country for having 'Interest Banking' and then take captives as sex slaves. Perhaps, you have misunderstood your peaceful religion or....maybe not? :afridi2
 
Dhoni,
Unfortunately, you have totally missed the point(s) I was making. You appear to be accusing me of condoning these practices, whereas I am the one who raised the thread questioning why it was not banned totally/completely.
You appear to be throwing arguments at me, arguments that I have made myself in this very thread.Here are some of my responses to another poster



It's a pity that you did'nt read my other posts in this thread before venting your anger - apparently in my direction.

I am sorry, I am sorry, I am extremely sorry! I completely lost it! I apologise to you and hope to be forgiven by yourself and the Lord. I should have focused on all of your posts. You know, I bathe each Saturday at eight AM, and afterwards I usually feel at peace as if having been absolved of my past deeds from the whole week, but not today, only because I was yet to apologise to you.

Forget it all, let´s restart: imagine killing a woman´s brother, father, husband etc. in a war, take her as captive, and then proceed to have physical relations with her; do you think this can hold any justification in any era or society? My blood boils even at the mention of it, even if it makes me liable to be punished under the Islamic law of blasphemy or whatever.

And I apologise again. Please forgive me.
 
Those who your right hand posses, you have to sign a contract with them and if they agree than you can have sexual relations with them.

But let them who find not [the means for] marriage abstain [from sexual relations] until Allah enriches them from His bounty. And those who seek a contract [for eventual emancipation] from among whom your right hands possess - then make a contract with them if you know there is within them goodness and give them from the wealth of Allah which He has given you. And do not compel your slave girls to prostitution, if they desire chastity, to seek [thereby] the temporary interests of worldly life. And if someone should compel them, then indeed, Allah is [to them], after their compulsion, Forgiving and Merciful.(24:33)

Clever sir, clever! Do you have any scholarly article to back your opinion on this? Regardless, I have sought a scholar´s help and he has reject your interpretation, and seeing the verse as it is, rightly so I am afraid.

To be very honest with you, this concept of signing a contract before having physical relations with one´s female servant is something that I have heard only from you - although I must act fair here to present the fact that Islam encourages the freeing of slaves and their good treatment in general.

Anyway, here´s my conversation with a scholar......

ffddzk.jpg


In short, the verse has got nothing to do with what you are claiming here, according to that scholar at least.
 
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[MENTION=4930]Yossarian[/MENTION] What are your thoughts?
My thoughts? I'll answer in a slightly different way if I may:
Every piece of literature, whether fiction or non-fiction, is based on the use of metaphors - apart from technical and scientific journals. And even there, the scientific writers will tend to use phrases like "probability", "odds", "percentage", rather saying "absolute fact".
And yet, we are expected to believe that the contents of religious texts, written thousands of years ago, written by those who themselves were not witness to the events but collated second-hand, should be interpretated as "facts" and taken literally?
 
Forget it all, let´s restart: imagine killing a woman´s brother, father, husband etc. in a war, take her as captive, and then proceed to have physical relations with her; do you think this can hold any justification in any era or society? My blood boils even at the mention of it, even if it makes me liable to be punished under the Islamic law of blasphemy or whatever.
Where have I tried to justify it? Even in the OP I'm suggesting it's a stain upon Islam for not banning it. For a Muslim tp say that, shows the strength of feelings I have on this subject..
 
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Where have I tried to justify it? Even in the OP I'm suggesting it's a stain upon Islam for not banning it. For a Muslim tp say that, shows the strength of feelings I have on this subject..

I wasn´t implying that you did/do. It was just a general question, although the question does seem to have been answered. So thanks.
 
Clever sir, clever! Do you have any scholarly article to back your opinion on this? Regardless, I have sought a scholar´s help and he has reject your interpretation, and seeing the verse as it is, rightly so I am afraid.

To be very honest with you, this concept of signing a contract before having physical relations with one´s female servant is something that I have heard only from you - although I must act fair here to present the fact that Islam encourages the freeing of slaves and their good treatment in general.

Anyway, here´s my conversation with a scholar......

ffddzk.jpg


In short, the verse has got nothing to do with what you are claiming here, according to that scholar at least.

My post Was in reply to The poster who said that sex without the consent of the female slave is allowed in Islam therefore he is saying that a Muslim man can rape his female slaves. Islam does not allow rape that much Is clear and the verse is very clear do not force your female slaves into prostitution, When you force someone into prostitution than you are making them have sexual relations with others against their will. So how can A man have sexual relations with his female slave without her consent?. And when I mention contract At that time a contract could be by word of mouth as long as witnesses are present, as at that time not many people could read and write.

Another point I would like to add is the Prophet (PBUH) forbade the hitting of the slave so how can Raping the slave be allowed?

Anyway A opinion of a sheikh on the topic of Malakat yad those who your right hand posses. But versed towards the end times.

Watch from 19 mins onward.

<iframe width="560" height="315" src="//www.youtube.com/embed/a7NkVYd5sFI" frameborder="0" allowfullscreen></iframe>
 
My blood boils even at the mention of it, even if it makes me liable to be punished under the Islamic law of blasphemy or whatever.

That's presuming you are Muslim, right?
Not sure why you would want to raise the point of blasphemy, seeing as other muslims on here have said far worse


Interestingly enough we have enough people on here arguing about concubines hundreds of years ago while human traffiking goes on in places like India today and noone really bats an eyelid


The premise of the argument seems to be why Islam did not ban slavery, seeing as it banned alcohol , homosexuality, riba, gambling etc
Before Islam, the main form of slavery was through kidnapping, Islam only permitted it through war as war the normal rules of engagement, which only seems fair

So yes, Islam did ban slavery through kidnapping
There we have it

You can stop feeling sorry for your muslim religion now and perhaps embrace all it's good
 
The premise of the argument seems to be why Islam did not ban slavery, seeing as it banned alcohol , homosexuality, riba, gambling etc

The argument is not why Islam did not ban slavery, rather why does Islam condone sex slavery.

Ma malakat aymanukum ('what your right hands possess') appears fourteen times in the Quran.
 
The argument is not why Islam did not ban slavery, rather why does Islam condone sex slavery.

Ma malakat aymanukum ('what your right hands possess') appears fourteen times in the Quran.

Different commentaries on verse 4:24

...it is also said that this means: so that you buy with your wealth captives; and it is also said that this means: so that you should seek with your money marrying women for an agreed period of time (zawaj al-mut'ah) but the lawfulness of this practice was later abrogated, (in honest wedlock) He says: be with them as legitimate husbands, (not debauchery) not indulging in adultery without having a proper marriage.

Ibn Abbas

...save what your right hands own, this is what God has prescribed for you. Lawful for you beyond all that is that you seek using your wealth, in wedlock and not in illicitly. Such wives as you enjoy thereby, give them their wages as an obligation; you are not at fault in agreeing together, after the obligation. God is ever Knowing,Wise.

When you stay mindful of the limits, respect agreements and obtain mutual consent with women according to the law, there will be no enmity in it for people and no punishment to follow from it from the Real (s), for that is lawful and without further restriction.

al Qushayri

Allah said,

﴿وَمَا مَلَكَتْ أَيْمَـنُكُمْ﴾

(and those (slaves) whom your right hands possess,) this is an order to be kind to them because they are weak, being held as captives by others. An authentic Hadith records that during the illness that preceded his death, the Messenger of Allah continued advising his Ummah:

«الصَّلَاةَ الصَّلَاةَ، وَمَا مَلَكَتْ أَيْمَانُكُم»

((Protect) the prayer, (protect) the prayer, and (those slaves) whom your hands possess.) He was repeating it until his tongue was still. Imam Ahmad recorded that Al-Miqdam bin Ma`dykarib said that the Messenger of Allah said,

«مَا أَطْعَمْتَ نَفْسَكَ فَهُوَ لَكَ صَدَقَةٌ، وَمَا أَطْعَمْتَ وَلَدَكَ فَهُوَ لَكَ صَدَقَةٌ، وَمَا أَطْعَمْتَ زَوْجَتَكَ فَهُوَ لَكَ صَدَقَةٌ، وَمَا أَطْعَمْتَ خَادِمَكَ فَهُوَ لَكَ صَدَقَة»

(What you feed yourself is a Sadaqah (charity) for you, what you feed your children is Sadaqah for you, what you feed your wife is Sadaqah for you and what you feed your servant is Sadaqah for you.) An-Nasa'i recorded this Hadith which has an authentic chain of narration, all the thanks are due to Allah. `Abdullah bin `Amr said to a caretaker of his, "Did you give the slaves their food yet'' He said, "No.'' Ibn `Amr said, "Go and give it to them, for the Messenger of Allah said,

«كَفَى بِالْمَرْءِ إِثْمًا أَنْ يَحْبِسَ عَمَّنْ يَمْلِكُ قُوتَهُم»

(It is enough sin for someone to prevent whomever he is responsible for from getting their food. )'' Muslim recorded this Hadith. Abu Hurayrah narrated that the Prophet said,

«لِلْمَمْلُوكِ طَعَامُهُ وَكِسْوَتُهُ، وَلَا يُكَلَّفُ مِنَ الْعَمَلِ إِلَّا مَا يُطِيق»

(The slave has the right to have food, clothing and to only be required to perform what he can bear of work.) Muslim also recorded this Hadith. Abu Hurayrah narrated that the Prophet said,

«إِذَا أَتَى أَحَدَكُمْ خَادِمُهُ بِطَعَامِه، فَإِنْ لَمْ يُجْلِسْهُ مَعَهُ فَلْيُنَاوِلْهُ لُقْمَةً أَوْ لُقْمَتَيْنِ أَوْ أُكْلَةً أَوْ أُكْلتَيْنِ فَإِنَّهُ وَلِيَ حَرَّهُ وَعِلَاجَه»

(When your servant brings meals to one of you, if he does not let him sit and share the meal, then he should at least give him a mouthful or two mouthfuls of that meal or a meal or two, for he has prepared it.) This is the wording collected by Al-Bukhari.

Ibn Kathir

...it should also be noted well that if a military commander temporarily distributes female prisoners of war among the soldiers for sexual purposes, or permits them to have sexual relations for the time being, such an act shall be unlawful and there is absolutely no difference between this and fornication, and fornication is a crime according to the Islamic code.

Maududi

...as for the expression ma malakat aymanukum ("those whom your right hands possess", i.e., "those whom you rightfully possess"), it is often taken to mean female slaves captured in a war in God's cause (see in this connection 8: 67, and the corresponding note). The commentators who choose this meaning hold that such slave-girls can be taken in marriage irrespective of whether they have husbands in the country of their origin or not. However, quite apart from the fundamental differences of opinion, even among the Companions of the Prophet, regarding the legality of such a marriage, some of the most outstanding commentators hold the view that ma malakat aymanukum denotes here "women whom you rightfully possess through wedlock"; thus Razi in his commentary on this verse, and Tabari in one of his alternative explanations (going back to 'Abd Allah ibn 'Abbas, Mujahid, and others). Razi, in particular, points out that the reference to "all married women" (al-muhsanat min an-nisa'), coming as it does after the enumeration of prohibited degrees of relationship, is meant to stress the prohibition of sexual relations with any woman other than one's lawful wife.

Muhammad Asad

^so few opinions from the 'early', 'middle' and 'modern' periods of Islam.
 
That's presuming you are Muslim, right?
Not sure why you would want to raise the point of blasphemy, seeing as other muslims on here have said far worse

Interestingly enough we have enough people on here arguing about concubines hundreds of years ago while human traffiking goes on in places like India today and noone really bats an eyelid

The premise of the argument seems to be why Islam did not ban slavery, seeing as it banned alcohol , homosexuality, riba, gambling etc

Before Islam, the main form of slavery was through kidnapping, Islam only permitted it through war as war the normal rules of engagement, which only seems fair.

So yes, Islam did ban slavery through kidnapping.

There we have it. You can stop feeling sorry for your muslim religion now and perhaps embrace all it's good

Sorry bud this is the WEAKEST argument ever. And I am understating it.

Who says human trafficking in India is acceptable?

Plus just because India or any other country is messed up does not lend an ounce of validity to your argument. If you say Islam is the true word of God, then why compare it with kafir societies? If the perfect book of God states something, you have to answer it in an absolute way (like how akheR is doing). Not say "Hey look we are better than so and so".

This is true not just for Muslims but non-Muslims too who might be asked questions about their religion.
 
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My post Was in reply to The poster who said that sex without the consent of the female slave is allowed in Islam therefore he is saying that a Muslim man can rape his female slaves. Islam does not allow rape that much Is clear and the verse is very clear do not force your female slaves into prostitution, When you force someone into prostitution than you are making them have sexual relations with others against their will. So how can A man have sexual relations with his female slave without her consent?. And when I mention contract At that time a contract could be by word of mouth as long as witnesses are present, as at that time not many people could read and write.

Another point I would like to add is the Prophet (PBUH) forbade the hitting of the slave so how can Raping the slave be allowed?

No, your post referred to verse 24:33 to suggest that one must sign a contract with a female servant before having physical relations with her. This is not true and there is nothing to suggest from that verse. Simple. Accept it as it is, brother. Please bring some other proof about signing contracts, otherwise it stands as your imagination. Thanks. The only thing I have heard of is that one´s physical relations with a slave shouldn´t be kept in secret, and should be known to others.

As for the rest of your post, I have already presented it myself in a post that slaves are to be treated well, and even freeing them seems to be an encouraged act.

Anyway A opinion of a sheikh on the topic of Malakat yad those who your right hand posses. But versed towards the end times.

Watch from 19 mins onward.

<iframe width="560" height="315" src="//www.youtube.com/embed/a7NkVYd5sFI" frameborder="0" allowfullscreen></iframe>

Sorry, I don´t have time for the video. Please provide the transcript so that we can discuss.

That's presuming you are Muslim, right?
Not sure why you would want to raise the point of blasphemy, seeing as other muslims on here have said far worse


Interestingly enough we have enough people on here arguing about concubines hundreds of years ago while human traffiking goes on in places like India today and noone really bats an eyelid


The premise of the argument seems to be why Islam did not ban slavery, seeing as it banned alcohol , homosexuality, riba, gambling etc
Before Islam, the main form of slavery was through kidnapping, Islam only permitted it through war as war the normal rules of engagement, which only seems fair

So yes, Islam did ban slavery through kidnapping
There we have it

You can stop feeling sorry for your muslim religion now and perhaps embrace all it's good

I don´t have time to respond to your whole post, mainly the parts directed at what I am or what I am not, but I will stick to the argument that you have provided, and read this:

May God´s curse be upon him whosoever does human trafficking and has anything to do with it. Happy? I can´t go beyond it.

You seem to suggest that slavery is only permitted through wars. Erm,... really? Please help me out, because from what I know, slavery is allowed otherwise as will, which is the mainstream view anyway.

AkheR said:
Muhammad Asad

^so few opinions from the 'early', 'middle' and 'modern' periods of Islam.

First of all, I think it will be interesting to share that it has been around or more than a year now that I read from five to 15 verses on daily basis with the commentary of Muhammad Asad. He is an excellent scholar, and I have referred to his point of view already in a post in this thread. However, his interpretations (and NOT reference, which he of course can´t fabricate on his own) are poles apart to the mainstream views due to which his books are banned in Saudi Arabia, as far as I know, as irrelevant as it may be.

Regardless, let us move on to the main issue......

Different commentaries on verse 4:24



Ibn Abbas

Firstly, if I can read the term alright, the practice that seems to have been abrogated by the verse, or at least by the interpretation given, is that of Muta, known as "Temporary marriage", which is a totally different concept and has been banned according to the Sunni Islam.

Secondly, there´s an online Tafseer available which is based on the Tafseer ibn Abbas, and it nowhere mentions anything such in its commentary of verse 24:33......

"(And let those who cannot find a match) those who are unable to marry (keep chaste till Allah give them independence by His grace) until Allah gives them sufficiency from His provision. This was revealed about Huwaytib Ibn 'Abd al-'Uzza who refused to agree to give one of his slaves a chance to buy out his freedom. (And such of your slaves as seek a writing (of emancipation)) to buy out their freedom, (write it for them if ye are aware of aught of good in them) if you know they are righteous and keep their promise, (and bestow upon them) upon all people (of the wealth of Allah which He hath bestowed upon you) so that they can make an agreement for their emancipation; it is also said that here the master is encouraged to forgive a third of what has been agreed upon with his slave who wants to buy out his freedom. Then the following was revealed about 'Abdullah Ibn Ubayy and his host because they used to force their female slaves to commit adultery in order to earn money from them and have more slaves as result of the children they bore as a consequence, and so Allah forbade them from doing this and made such an act forbidden: (Force not your slave girls to whoredom that ye may seek enjoyment of the life of the world) from what they earn from working as prostitutes and also from the children they give birth to, (if they would preserve their chastity) if they want to remain chaste. (And if one force them) and if one force these slave girl to commit adultery, (then (unto them), after their compulsion) and repentance, (Lo! Allah will be Forgiving) He forgives them, (Merciful) and He will show mercy towards them after they die."

Link:
http://main.altafsir.com/Tafasir.as...No=33&tDisplay=yes&UserProfile=0&LanguageId=2

Regardless of that, you can choose to overlook this and move on to the next chapter......

al Qushayri

It´s very difficult to conclude anything from it for me, or even debate, because of the fact that the text clearly seems to be incomplete. The start of what you have provided goes like, "...save what your right hands own... " What does it mean? Could it again be, in its whole context, that all women are forbidden except the wives and the female servants - the ones that your right hand possess? Could it be that al-Qushayri too seems to be hinting at the prohibition of Muta?

AkheR said:

A lot stronger reference, I must admit. The words are clearer and understandable. Good find. But what is Maududi implying by "For the time being"? Anyway, I have found his commentary of the Book online and the commentary on chapter 24 nowhere mentions these words.....

http://www.englishtafsir.com/Quran/24/index.html

.... Or are they?

In fact, I have found something that sounds your whole argument packing! Here´s Maududi´s commentary of verse 23:5 to 23:7......

"Two categories of women have been excluded from the general command of guarding the private parts: (a) wives, (b) women who are legally in ode's possession, i.e. slave-girls. Thus the verse clearly lays down the law that one is allowed to have sexual relations with one's slave-girl as with one's wife. the basis being possession and not marriage. If marriage had been the condition, the slave-girl also would have been included among the wives, and there was no need to mention them separately. Some modern commentators, who dispute the permissibility of having sexual relations with the slave-girl, argue from An-Nisa' (IV) : 25 to prove that one can have sexual relations with a slave-girl only after entering wedlock with her, because that verse enjoins that if a person cannot afford to marry a free Muslim woman, he may marry a Muslim slave-girl. But these commentators have a strange characteristic: they accept a part of a verse if it suits them, but conveniently ignore another part of the same verse if it goes against their wish and whim. The law about marrying the slave-girls as enunciated in IV :25 reads: "....you may marry them with the permission of their guardians and give them their fair dowries." Obviously the person under reference here is not the master of the slave girl himself but the person who cannot afford to marry a free Muslim woman, and therefore , wants to marry a slave-girl, who is in the possession of another person. For if the question had been of marrying one's own slave-girl, who would then be the "guardian" whose permission would have to be sought? Then, the interpretation they give of this verse contradicts other verses dealing with the same subject in the Qur'an."

Link:
http://www.englishtafsir.com/Quran/23/index.html#sdfootnote7sym

And here was me wondering how on earth Maududi on earth could have believed in lighter, liberalistic interpretations..... Sigh! Perish the thought!

Wait, wait, wait,.... the great scholar says the following commenting on verse 4:24.....

"That is, those women who become prisoners of war, while their unbelieving husbands are left behind in the War Zone, are not unlawful because their marriage ties are broken by the fact that they have come from the War Zone into the Islamic Zone. It is lawful to marry such women, and it is also lawful for those, in whose possession they are, to have sexual relations with them. There is, however, a difference of opinion as to whether such a woman is lawful, if her husband is also taken a prisoner along with her. Imam Abu Hanifah and those of his way of thinking are of the opinion that the marriage tie of such a pair would remain intact but Imam Malik and Shafi 'i, are of the opinion that it would also break.

As there exist many misunderstandings in the minds of the people concerning the slave-girls taken as prisoners of war, the following should be carefully studied:

(1) It is not lawful for a soldier to have conjugal relations with a prisoner of war as soon as she falls into his hands. The Islamic Law requires that all such women should be handed over to the government, which has the right to set them free or to ransom them, or to exchange them with the Muslim prisoners in the hands of the enemy, or distribute them among the soldiers. A soldier can cohabit only with that woman who has been formally given to him by the government.

(2) Even then, he shall have to wait for one monthly course before he can cohabit with her in order to ensure whether she is pregnant or not; otherwise it shall be unlawful to cohabit with her before delivery.

(3) It does not matter whether the female prisoner of war belongs to the people of the Book or not. Whatever her religion, she becomes lawful for the man to whom she is formally given.

(4) None but the one to own the slave-girl is given has the right to "touch her." The offspring of such a woman from his seed shall be his lawful children and shall have the same legal rights as are given by the Divine Law to the children from one's loins. After the birth of a child she cannot be sold as a slave-girl and shall automatically become free after her master's death.

(5) If the master marries his slave-girl with another man, he forfeits his conjugal rights over her, but retains other rights such as service from her.

(6) The maximum limit of four has not been prescribed for slave-girls as in the case of wives for the simple reason that the number of female prisoners of war is unpredictable. The lack of limit does by no means provide a license for the well-to-do people to buy any number of slave-girls for licentious purposes.

(7) The proprietary rights over a slave, male or female, as given to a person by the government are transferable like all other legal proprietary rights.

(8) The handing over of the proprietary rights over a slave-girl to a man formally by the government makes her as much lawful for him as the giving of the baud of a free woman to a man by her parents or guardian through nikah (marriage ceremony). Therefore, there is no reason why a man who does not hold marriage in detestation should hold sexual intercourse with a slave-girl in detestation.

(9) When once the government hands over the female prisoner of war to someone, it has no right whatever to take her back from him, just as the parent or guardian has no right to take back a woman after she is handed over to a man through nikah."

Link:
http://www.englishtafsir.com/Quran/4/index.html#sdfootnote45sym

So then, the whole theory is now killed! Maududi now explains the proper way to do "it". Very helpful explanation. I have taken note of it. So the reference you have provided is right, but that is about those who don´t do "it" properly. The above tells you how to do "it". I hope that it´s now clarified.

AkheR said:
Ibn Kathir

As far as this whole issue is concerned, that reference of Ibn Kathir doesn´t one bit relate to our topic of having physical relations with them!

In his commentary of verse 4:24, Ibn Kathir writes.....

"(except those whom your right hands possess) except those whom you acquire through war, for you are allowed such women after making sure they are not pregnant. Imam Ahmad recorded that Abu Sa`id Al-Khudri said, "We captured some women from the area of Awtas who were already married, and we disliked having sexual relations with them because they already had husbands. So, we asked the Prophet about this matter, and this Ayah was revealed. (Also (forbidden are) women already married, except those whom your right hands possess). Consequently, we had sexual relations with these women.'' This is the wording collected by At-Tirmidhi An-Nasa'i, Ibn Jarir and Muslim in his Sahih."

Link:
http://www.qtafsir.com/index.php?option=com_content&task=view&id=684&Itemid=59

Lastly, here follows the most importantly point: okay, I might be a liar, fabricator etc. for having made up all of the above, whereas the reality is that it was allowed "Only for those times" (a phrase so famous!) and is forbidden now, but I still object to it, even if it was allowed for a period of 30 minutes in the history of mankind. Having sex with the captives of war, especially with married women, is just plain disgusting! Thanks.

..... you have to answer it in an absolute way (like how akheR is doing). Not say "Hey look we are better than so and so".

This is true not just for Muslims but non-Muslims too who might be asked questions about their religion.

Well put, but another thing I might add is that not telling the absolute truth about your religion is also a transgression on two accounts: 1. You mislead the people not belonging to your religion into thinking that "These are all misunderstandings", 2. You hide the true message of your religion. Thirdly, it leaves people like me to spends hours to dig out the original truth that people want not to hear and reveal. It´s headache man! Have mercy on me. I think cream rolls with tea will do for me now....

Have a blessed evening, you all:).
 
Well put, but another thing I might add is that not telling the absolute truth about your religion is also a transgression on two accounts: 1. You mislead the people not belonging to your religion into thinking that "These are all misunderstandings", 2. You hide the true message of your religion. Thirdly, it leaves people like me to spends hours to dig out the original truth that people want not to hear and reveal. It´s headache man! Have mercy on me. I think cream rolls with tea will do for me now.
...


Anyone would have thought you had better things to do with your time like perhaps preparing for Ramadan



You seem to suggest that slavery is only permitted through wars. Erm,... really? Please help me out, because from what I know, slavery is allowed otherwise as will, which is the mainstream view

“Allaah, may He be exalted, said: ‘There are three whose opponent I will be on the Day of Resurrection, and whomever I oppose, I will defeat … A man who sold a free man and consumed his price.’” Narrated by al-Bukhaari (2227).



As for your idea of 'sexual slaves'

If the slave girls are maids then sexual relationships are prohibited , if they are taken as partners, then she does not have any other sexual relationships and she is freed once she bores a child




Do not compel your slave girls to prostitution, if they desire chastity, to seek thereby the temporary interests of worldly life.

Surah An-Nur 24:33



There is a double reward for a man who owns a servant girl and he mentors her, teaches her beautiful manners, educates her in the best way, and then he emancipates her and marries her.

Sahih Bukhari 97,


Habeeb ibn Salim reported: A man had sexual intercourse with the servant girl of his wife, so the matter was referred to Nu’man ibn Basheer. Nu’man said:

I will judge them according to the judgment of the Messenger of Allah, peace and blessings be upon him. If his wife had given him permission, I will lash him one hundred times. If she did not give him permission, I will stone him.

Sunan At-Tirmidhi 1451,




Harun ibn Al-Asim reported: Umar ibn Al-Khattab sent Khalid ibn Al-Waleed with the army and Khalid sent Dirar ibn Al-Azwar along with a company and they invaded a district belonging to the tribe of Asad. They captured a beautiful girl and Dirar was impressed with her. He asked his companions to give her to him and they did, then he had intercourse with her. A letter was sent to Umar and he replied:

He should be stoned to death.

Sunan Al-Kubra 1676




Imam Ash-Shafi’ee said:

If a man acquires a slave girl by force and then he rapes her, and he is not an ignorant person, then the slave girl is taken from him. He must pay the fine and the legal punishment for adultery will be applied to him.




You can stop being sickened now and perhaps widen your sources for your alledged islamophobic activities
 
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Muslims really need to make this subject clear, Lets be honest, even most muslims dont know why slavery technically is allowed. Just until 50 years ago, Slavery was everywhere in Arabia including Makkah/Madinah. Arabs were the most brutal of slaves of Africans. African men use to be castrated and completely used as objects to serve their masters.

I believe Islam did do many positive things for the slaves, this is evident in the Quran and Hadiths, however the questions still remains why is it allowed? Humans will always misuse anything, when it is not banned or is vaguely covered
 
Muslims really need to make this subject clear, Lets be honest, even most muslims dont know why slavery technically is allowed. Just until 50 years ago, Slavery was everywhere in Arabia including Makkah/Madinah. Arabs were the most brutal of slaves of Africans. African men use to be castrated and completely used as objects to serve their masters

Sources?


It was allowed through warfare as were the norms in war in those days
Islam became quite militant after the battle of the trench when they were outnumbered on all frontiers by quraysh, jewish tribes and all surrounding tribes
and also many muslims being killed after being hoaxed to go to other cities to teach others islam


It's the same as people getting self indignant about jihad and muslims possibly defending themselves when being captured, killed and not allowed to practise their religion.
 
No, your post referred to verse 24:33 to suggest that one must sign a contract with a female servant before having physical relations with her. This is not true and there is nothing to suggest from that verse. Simple. Accept it as it is, brother. Please bring some other proof about signing contracts, otherwise it stands as your imagination. Thanks. The only thing I have heard of is that one´s physical relations with a slave shouldn´t be kept in secret, and should be known to others.

As for the rest of your post, I have already presented it myself in a post that slaves are to be treated well, and even freeing them seems to be an encouraged act.

I further researched on this topic and Yes I did make a mistake the contract here is for women seeking freedom, But I don't accept the view that you can rape your sex slave and neither is there any proof of the prophet allowing anyone the permission to do so. There is one hadith in bukhari but it is ambiguous as we don't know if the consent of the female slaves was there or not.


Sorry, I don´t have time for the video. Please provide the transcript so that we can discuss.



I don´t have time to respond to your whole post, mainly the parts directed at what I am or what I am not, but I will stick to the argument that you have provided, and read this:

May God´s curse be upon him whosoever does human trafficking and has anything to do with it. Happy? I can´t go beyond it.

You seem to suggest that slavery is only permitted through wars. Erm,... really? Please help me out, because from what I know, slavery is allowed otherwise as will, which is the mainstream view anyway.



First of all, I think it will be interesting to share that it has been around or more than a year now that I read from five to 15 verses on daily basis with the commentary of Muhammad Asad. He is an excellent scholar, and I have referred to his point of view already in a post in this thread. However, his interpretations (and NOT reference, which he of course can´t fabricate on his own) are poles apart to the mainstream views due to which his books are banned in Saudi Arabia, as far as I know, as irrelevant as it may be.

Regardless, let us move on to the main issue......



Firstly, if I can read the term alright, the practice that seems to have been abrogated by the verse, or at least by the interpretation given, is that of Muta, known as "Temporary marriage", which is a totally different concept and has been banned according to the Sunni Islam.

Secondly, there´s an online Tafseer available which is based on the Tafseer ibn Abbas, and it nowhere mentions anything such in its commentary of verse 24:33......

"(And let those who cannot find a match) those who are unable to marry (keep chaste till Allah give them independence by His grace) until Allah gives them sufficiency from His provision. This was revealed about Huwaytib Ibn 'Abd al-'Uzza who refused to agree to give one of his slaves a chance to buy out his freedom. (And such of your slaves as seek a writing (of emancipation)) to buy out their freedom, (write it for them if ye are aware of aught of good in them) if you know they are righteous and keep their promise, (and bestow upon them) upon all people (of the wealth of Allah which He hath bestowed upon you) so that they can make an agreement for their emancipation; it is also said that here the master is encouraged to forgive a third of what has been agreed upon with his slave who wants to buy out his freedom. Then the following was revealed about 'Abdullah Ibn Ubayy and his host because they used to force their female slaves to commit adultery in order to earn money from them and have more slaves as result of the children they bore as a consequence, and so Allah forbade them from doing this and made such an act forbidden: (Force not your slave girls to whoredom that ye may seek enjoyment of the life of the world) from what they earn from working as prostitutes and also from the children they give birth to, (if they would preserve their chastity) if they want to remain chaste. (And if one force them) and if one force these slave girl to commit adultery, (then (unto them), after their compulsion) and repentance, (Lo! Allah will be Forgiving) He forgives them, (Merciful) and He will show mercy towards them after they die."

Link:
http://main.altafsir.com/Tafasir.as...No=33&tDisplay=yes&UserProfile=0&LanguageId=2

Regardless of that, you can choose to overlook this and move on to the next chapter......



It´s very difficult to conclude anything from it for me, or even debate, because of the fact that the text clearly seems to be incomplete. The start of what you have provided goes like, "...save what your right hands own... " What does it mean? Could it again be, in its whole context, that all women are forbidden except the wives and the female servants - the ones that your right hand possess? Could it be that al-Qushayri too seems to be hinting at the prohibition of Muta?



A lot stronger reference, I must admit. The words are clearer and understandable. Good find. But what is Maududi implying by "For the time being"? Anyway, I have found his commentary of the Book online and the commentary on chapter 24 nowhere mentions these words.....

http://www.englishtafsir.com/Quran/24/index.html

.... Or are they?

In fact, I have found something that sounds your whole argument packing! Here´s Maududi´s commentary of verse 23:5 to 23:7......

"Two categories of women have been excluded from the general command of guarding the private parts: (a) wives, (b) women who are legally in ode's possession, i.e. slave-girls. Thus the verse clearly lays down the law that one is allowed to have sexual relations with one's slave-girl as with one's wife. the basis being possession and not marriage. If marriage had been the condition, the slave-girl also would have been included among the wives, and there was no need to mention them separately. Some modern commentators, who dispute the permissibility of having sexual relations with the slave-girl, argue from An-Nisa' (IV) : 25 to prove that one can have sexual relations with a slave-girl only after entering wedlock with her, because that verse enjoins that if a person cannot afford to marry a free Muslim woman, he may marry a Muslim slave-girl. But these commentators have a strange characteristic: they accept a part of a verse if it suits them, but conveniently ignore another part of the same verse if it goes against their wish and whim. The law about marrying the slave-girls as enunciated in IV :25 reads: "....you may marry them with the permission of their guardians and give them their fair dowries." Obviously the person under reference here is not the master of the slave girl himself but the person who cannot afford to marry a free Muslim woman, and therefore , wants to marry a slave-girl, who is in the possession of another person. For if the question had been of marrying one's own slave-girl, who would then be the "guardian" whose permission would have to be sought? Then, the interpretation they give of this verse contradicts other verses dealing with the same subject in the Qur'an."

Link:
http://www.englishtafsir.com/Quran/23/index.html#sdfootnote7sym

And here was me wondering how on earth Maududi on earth could have believed in lighter, liberalistic interpretations..... Sigh! Perish the thought!

Wait, wait, wait,.... the great scholar says the following commenting on verse 4:24.....

"That is, those women who become prisoners of war, while their unbelieving husbands are left behind in the War Zone, are not unlawful because their marriage ties are broken by the fact that they have come from the War Zone into the Islamic Zone. It is lawful to marry such women, and it is also lawful for those, in whose possession they are, to have sexual relations with them. There is, however, a difference of opinion as to whether such a woman is lawful, if her husband is also taken a prisoner along with her. Imam Abu Hanifah and those of his way of thinking are of the opinion that the marriage tie of such a pair would remain intact but Imam Malik and Shafi 'i, are of the opinion that it would also break.

As there exist many misunderstandings in the minds of the people concerning the slave-girls taken as prisoners of war, the following should be carefully studied:

(1) It is not lawful for a soldier to have conjugal relations with a prisoner of war as soon as she falls into his hands. The Islamic Law requires that all such women should be handed over to the government, which has the right to set them free or to ransom them, or to exchange them with the Muslim prisoners in the hands of the enemy, or distribute them among the soldiers. A soldier can cohabit only with that woman who has been formally given to him by the government.

(2) Even then, he shall have to wait for one monthly course before he can cohabit with her in order to ensure whether she is pregnant or not; otherwise it shall be unlawful to cohabit with her before delivery.

(3) It does not matter whether the female prisoner of war belongs to the people of the Book or not. Whatever her religion, she becomes lawful for the man to whom she is formally given.

(4) None but the one to own the slave-girl is given has the right to "touch her." The offspring of such a woman from his seed shall be his lawful children and shall have the same legal rights as are given by the Divine Law to the children from one's loins. After the birth of a child she cannot be sold as a slave-girl and shall automatically become free after her master's death.

(5) If the master marries his slave-girl with another man, he forfeits his conjugal rights over her, but retains other rights such as service from her.

(6) The maximum limit of four has not been prescribed for slave-girls as in the case of wives for the simple reason that the number of female prisoners of war is unpredictable. The lack of limit does by no means provide a license for the well-to-do people to buy any number of slave-girls for licentious purposes.

(7) The proprietary rights over a slave, male or female, as given to a person by the government are transferable like all other legal proprietary rights.

(8) The handing over of the proprietary rights over a slave-girl to a man formally by the government makes her as much lawful for him as the giving of the baud of a free woman to a man by her parents or guardian through nikah (marriage ceremony). Therefore, there is no reason why a man who does not hold marriage in detestation should hold sexual intercourse with a slave-girl in detestation.

(9) When once the government hands over the female prisoner of war to someone, it has no right whatever to take her back from him, just as the parent or guardian has no right to take back a woman after she is handed over to a man through nikah."

Link:
http://www.englishtafsir.com/Quran/4/index.html#sdfootnote45sym

So then, the whole theory is now killed! Maududi now explains the proper way to do "it". Very helpful explanation. I have taken note of it. So the reference you have provided is right, but that is about those who don´t do "it" properly. The above tells you how to do "it". I hope that it´s now clarified.



As far as this whole issue is concerned, that reference of Ibn Kathir doesn´t one bit relate to our topic of having physical relations with them!

In his commentary of verse 4:24, Ibn Kathir writes.....

"(except those whom your right hands possess) except those whom you acquire through war, for you are allowed such women after making sure they are not pregnant. Imam Ahmad recorded that Abu Sa`id Al-Khudri said, "We captured some women from the area of Awtas who were already married, and we disliked having sexual relations with them because they already had husbands. So, we asked the Prophet about this matter, and this Ayah was revealed. (Also (forbidden are) women already married, except those whom your right hands possess). Consequently, we had sexual relations with these women.'' This is the wording collected by At-Tirmidhi An-Nasa'i, Ibn Jarir and Muslim in his Sahih."

Link:
http://www.qtafsir.com/index.php?option=com_content&task=view&id=684&Itemid=59

Lastly, here follows the most importantly point: okay, I might be a liar, fabricator etc. for having made up all of the above, whereas the reality is that it was allowed "Only for those times" (a phrase so famous!) and is forbidden now, but I still object to it, even if it was allowed for a period of 30 minutes in the history of mankind. Having sex with the captives of war, especially with married women, is just plain disgusting! Thanks.



Well put, but another thing I might add is that not telling the absolute truth about your religion is also a transgression on two accounts: 1. You mislead the people not belonging to your religion into thinking that "These are all misunderstandings", 2. You hide the true message of your religion. Thirdly, it leaves people like me to spends hours to dig out the original truth that people want not to hear and reveal. It´s headache man! Have mercy on me. I think cream rolls with tea will do for me now....

Have a blessed evening, you all:).

Reply in red
 
Anyone would have thought you had better things to do with your time like perhaps preparing for Ramadan

I see that you are really fond of personal digs so that you can start a dual with me and derail the thread from the original topic. However, I don´t have time for that.

You can stop being sickened now and perhaps widen your sources for your alledged islamophobic activities

This is just your insecurity, whereas it´s quite clear that I have twice mentioned here that freeing slaves is encouraged and they are to be treated well. There´s no Islamophobia or any phobia. These are just the facts that you can´t seem to digest, whereas on the other hand I have criticised practices of other faiths as well such as Hinduism. I praise and admire if I happen to find a good thing in religions - and to be honest, most of them are good:). Just today I came across verses in the Book relating to the practice of Zihar and it is indeed commendable of Islam to have abolished that disgusting thing.

Lastly, if possible for you, please discuss the topic instead of getting personal. Try it, it will work.

chacha kashmiri said:
As for your idea of 'sexual slaves'

What nonsense is this? Why are you bent on portaying as if I have mispresented facts here. I have given references from the writings of Ibn Kathir, Maududi etc. Are they influenced by my thinking?

Alongside the term "slave" I have used the term "servant" due to the post by the Great Khan bhai. Anyone would by a fool to conclude that I am referring to the women hired for cooking, dusting or to take care of your children. To be exact, they are those whom one´s right hand possess.

Now, please help me out if I am wrong:

1. A free human-being can´t be enslaved, either by kidnapping, paying a price or wshatever measures. It´s not allowed! A free human-being can only be taken as a captive of war which makes him a slave of course.

2. But you can buy slaves and keep them who are already yours - maybe since generations. If this bit is accurate, then you can´t quite conclude that slavery is only allowed through wars.

However, forget everything of the above two points. I am misinformed, misled, a devil, but you yourself have admitted one thing, as you can read below.....

chacha kashmiri said:
.... Islam only permitted it through war....

So, to repeat myself on this:

"Having sex with the captives of war, especially with married women, is just plain disgusting! Thanks."

And again, I will never on earth be convinced that it´s an acceptable thing. It´s just not on under any circumstances.....

chacha kashmiri said:
Do not compel your slave girls to prostitution, if they desire chastity, to seek thereby the temporary interests of worldly life.

Surah An-Nur 24:33

If you had at least read my posts carefully in which I have quoted you as well, this verse has been discussed a lot already.

Regardless, what does it prove? Where have I stated that you can force them into prostitution? It´s a beautiful ruling of course.

chacha kashmiri said:
Harun ibn Al-Asim reported: Umar ibn Al-Khattab sent Khalid ibn Al-Waleed with the army and Khalid sent Dirar ibn Al-Azwar along with a company and they invaded a district belonging to the tribe of Asad. They captured a beautiful girl and Dirar was impressed with her. He asked his companions to give her to him and they did, then he had intercourse with her. A letter was sent to Umar and he replied:

He should be stoned to death.

Sunan Al-Kubra 1676

This is exactly the thing already I have referred to from Maududi´s writing. Let me paste it again from my above post:

"As there exist many misunderstandings in the minds of the people concerning the slave-girls taken as prisoners of war, the following should be carefully studied:

(1) It is not lawful for a soldier to have conjugal relations with a prisoner of war as soon as she falls into his hands. The Islamic Law requires that all such women should be handed over to the government, which has the right to set them free or to ransom them, or to exchange them with the Muslim prisoners in the hands of the enemy, or distribute them among the soldiers. A soldier can cohabit only with that woman who has been formally given to him by the government.

(2) Even then, he shall have to wait for one monthly course before he can cohabit with her in order to ensure whether she is pregnant or not; otherwise it shall be unlawful to cohabit with her before delivery."

Link:
http://www.englishtafsir.com/Quran/4/index.html#sdfootnote45sym

So they were clearly for not doing "it" the proper way.

Otherwise, what does this reference prove at all? A person without much knowledge of Islam would take it to mean that having sexual relations with a female captive of war is forbidden, but that is something you yourself have admitted to being allowed. So what´s then your point?

speed said:
I further researched on this topic and Yes I did make a mistake the contract here is for women seeking freedom, But I don't accept the view that you can rape your sex slave and neither is there any proof of the prophet allowing anyone the permission to do so. There is one hadith in bukhari but it is ambiguous as we don't know if the consent of the female slaves was there or not.

All good brother, all good:). The debating regarding raping them was never between me and you. I only stepped in when a verse was mentioned.

May God bless you and all your beloved ones. Amen.
 
Otherwise, what does this reference prove at all? A person without much knowledge of Islam would take it to mean that having sexual relations with a female captive of war is forbidden, but that is something you yourself have admitted to being allowed. So what´s then your point?

Rape is forbidden which is my point

But you can buy slaves and keep them who are already yours - maybe since generations. If this bit is accurate, then you can´t quite conclude that slavery is only allowed through wars.

Give me examples of where muslims bought slaves outside war apart from to free them





Does Islam have a document on slaves such as the Hindu documentantion of Occhut
 
Rape is forbidden which is my point

Good, very good. Point taken, but where exactly have I raised the point about rape being allowed?

Besides, seeing from the text of the Hadith, it could well be that the man in case was stoned to death for not following the proper way, as is told by Maududi which is also highlighted below ONCE AGAIN:

(1) It is not lawful for a soldier to have conjugal relations with a prisoner of war as soon as she falls into his hands. The Islamic Law requires that all such women should be handed over to the government, which has the right to set them free or to ransom them, or to exchange them with the Muslim prisoners in the hands of the enemy, or distribute them among the soldiers. A soldier can cohabit only with that woman who has been formally given to him by the government.

(2) Even then, he shall have to wait for one monthly course before he can cohabit with her in order to ensure whether she is pregnant or not; otherwise it shall be unlawful to cohabit with her before delivery."

So it could well be that the man was punished for not having gone the above way. Regardless, it´s not relevant as not even once have I claimed that rape is allowed.

chacha kashmiri said:
Give me examples of where muslims bought slaves outside war apart from to free them

My post said, ".... please help me out if I am wrong.... ", and you still haven´t helped me out on this. I need references on this.


chacha kashmiri said:
Does Islam have a document on slaves such as the Hindu documentantion of Occhut

I have no knowledge of any such concept. As it is anyway, this is not relevant.
 
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https://abdullahalandalusi.com/2017...sponse-to-western-criticism-of-islam-slavery/

6 key points on Islam’s teachings on Reqaab and Jariyaat & the Muslim response to Western criticism of Islam & Slavery

BY ABDULLAH AL ANDALUSI on AUGUST 28, 2017 • ( 0 )
The following is a transcript of the summary of key points from the video of my lecture on Islam & Slavery, presented on 24th March 2017, SOAS, UK.

1st key point:
Islamic Laws Do not Match Pre-Islamic or ‘Post-Enlightenment’ European Laws on Slavery
The practice of slavery in ancient and post-enlightment Europe, considered slaves to be fully owned by their masters, as property. An example of this, was that slave owners (i.e. ‘masters’) were allowed to beat slaves at whim, and put them to work on whatever task they were called on to perform, no matter how dangerous or burdensome, as the slaves were considered property, and like property, had in their legal systems, the right to dispose of their property as they desired.

These treatments that the laws in such systems permitted, arose because these laws generally considered slaves to be objects and not people. This meant that slaves could generally be treated with no regard to their dignity or humanity, certainly not a regard equal to their owners. Slaves could be acquired by a number of means, and citizenship was no protection from slavery.

Islam, however transformed the institution of slavery such that it abolished the ownership of people by other people, as the Islamic concept of Tawhid (monotheism) declared that everyone is the property of God, and so no one can be owned except by God.

Consequently, Islam transformed former slave owners (masters) into responsible bosses/patrons (‘sayids’), and former slaves into (indentured) servants or workers with a legal obligation to provide economic activity for their bosses in return for food, board (housing) and clothing equvalent to what their bosses would wear. Patrons were prohibited from hitting or striking an indentured servant/worker at whim. The cost of doing so, would be to release the servant/worker from their bond to the patron.

Indentured servants had the right to a hearing in court, seek legal redress for injustices done to themselves, and demand respectful treatment and EQUAL provision of clothing and respect to their patrons. Indentured servants/workers had workers’ rights and could not be overburdened, or made to do dangerous tasks, or be forced to be a soldier.

These features demonstrate that unlike previous and subsequent legal systems that permitted slavery, Islam considered all humans, including indentured servants to be people and not objects.

Islam prohibited putting any free person into indentured servitude, even if they were criminals. Only those who were captured whilst they were actively engaged in battle or waging of war were deemed eligible for indentured servitude if no other option was available, like release on parole, prisoner exchange or ransom.

Islam instituted a number of legal and spiritual inducements to release people who were indentured servants/workers, either by the state paying a part of wealth tax (‘Zakah’) to patrons as compensation to release workers/servants, or by encouraging Muslims to release them as an act of personal expiation for sins.

What becomes clear from all this, is that the Islamic treatment of indentured servants was completely unlike a system of slavery that had existed before and after. Islamic laws do not fit any models of laws on slavery from any other civilisations.

Therefore, the Islamic call to Tawhid, as well as the treating of Indentured Servants as humans and persons, not objects, recognised as such under the law, showed that Islam effectively abolished slavery of man to man.

Key Point 2:

(International agreements between) Western countries and the founders of Political Philosophy of Secular Liberalism, do and did not consider compelled labour – by itself – to be Slavery
The founder of Secular Liberalism, the dominant Ideology in the West today, John Locke, considered the practice of indentured servitude in Jewish Law to not be slavery since he argued that a patron could not arbitrarily kill his servants at whim. This meant that the patron was not the true owner of the servant’s body, and therefore the servant was only doing drudgery, forced labour, and was not a ‘slave’.

John Locke considered Jewish Laws on servants not to be slavery. Therefore he would’ve considered Islamic law, which gives more rights to Indentured Servants, also not to be slavery either.

In 1833, the British Empire transformed slaves into ‘apprentices’ who had some legal rights but not rights to respect or equal provision, and were still obligated to work for their former masters for six years. Their masters were now called their ‘bosses’. The British Empire compensated all former slave owners for this process, so none lost out in money.

The British Empire saw no contradiction between Indentured servitude and the ‘Abolition of Slavery’.

After the abolition of slavery, the British Empire used indentured servitude, mandatory apprenticeships, coerced labour for workers and prisoners until 1948. Britain saw no contradiction between Indentured servitude and the ‘Abolition of Slavery’.

In 1863, the USA enacted the 13th Amendment, which abolished enslavement of all people, except prisoners. Prisoners in the USA can be made to do coerced labour or face punishment such as solitary confinement.

The U.S. called this the ‘Abolition of Slavery’.

The 1949 3rd Geneva Convention (section 3) permits States to ‘compel’ captured prisoners of war (POWs) to do work for their captors.

This international Convention, was signed by post-slavery abolition states like the U.S.A and UK, and is considered by all Western states not to contradict the abolition of slavery

The Prophet Muhammed (saaw) limited taking people into ‘compelled labour’ only to POWs (Prisoners of War), like the 3rd Geneva Convention allows;

Key Point 3:
Islamic Law of Servant-workers Resembles More the Imperial British system of Indentured Servants/Workers, than slavery
Indentured servants were considered as persons, not objects in English law, and therefore had rights

Indentured servants were obliged to fulfill their Indenture until their boss/patron released them from it, or they paid it off

Indentured servants were the responsibility of their bosses/patrons i.e. food, clothing and shelter

The Third Geneva convention allows prisoners of war to be ‘compelled’ to work for their captors

Reqaab /Jariyat were originally POWs, are given rights as persons, and Indentured to work until release or payment of their Indenture. Therefore Islamic law on this matter is more similar to treatment of POWs and the British Imperial Indenture System

Key Point 4:

Islam expressly prohibited anyone from calling their reqaab or jariyat, ‘their slaves’, or being called ‘master’ by them
The Prophet Muhammed (saaw) expressly prohibited servants from calling their patrons/bosses their ‘masters’, and patrons from calling their servants their ‘slaves’.

Conclusion
If Islamic law:

Does not resemble any known system of slavery
Resembles more post-abolition Western legal systems that were/are not considered slavery by the West
and,
the Prophet Muhammed (saaw) expressly prohibited servants from calling their patrons/bosses their ‘masters’, and patrons from calling their servants their ‘slaves’,
then according to all these criteria, including modern day Western practices after slavery was abolished, the Prophet Muhammed‘s changes to the Pre-Islamic practice of slavery effectively abolished slavery (by the Western definition).

In fact, the Prophet Muhammed (saaw) created a different institution altogether, which emancipated people with economic independence and social mobility, and unlike in Western history, did not abandon them to sudden poverty and discrimination.

Therefore, in the West, Muslims could viably argue that the Prophet Muhammed (saaw) actually abolished the ancient concept (chattel) slavery.

This would make sense of the fact, that Islam prohibited people to refer to their indentured servants as ‘their slaves’, nor for indentured servants to refer to their bosses as ‘their masters or owners’ because all humans are only slaves to God. This final Islamic directive clearly demonstrates that Islam abolished slavery of man to man, and called for mankind to be only slaves to God.

Addendum 1:
A Recommendation on translations into English

I’d like to finish by making a key recommendation after this lecture, namely: the Translation into Western languages needs to be changed to fit the meaning of the Islamic concept of Raqabah and Jariya.

Translations are about translating the conceptual meaning of a word or phrase, the word ‘slave’ in the English language does not represent even a literal translation of the Arabic words, Raqabah or Jariya

As the lecture demonstrated, the Translation of Raqabah and Jariya in Islamic law, does not conceptually translate as slave by the Western understanding of that concept. So why use it?

The words Raqabah and Jariya should be translated into Western languages as ‘Indentured Servant’ or ‘Indentured worker’, as it does not mean ‘slave’. For which the Arabic word is ABD.

The Arabic word ‘Sayid’ should be translated as patron or boss, and does not mean ‘master’ or ‘owner’.

Indentured means the legal obligation, and servant means anyone who ‘someone who serves’ like for (e.g. civil servant). An ‘Indentured Servant’ means that the law obliges them to render the terms of their service.

When it comes to current day translations, the words usually translated in English as ‘slaves’ from the Arabic text, should be changed to reflect the more accurate meaning, ‘indentured servants or workers’, which are a more accurate translation that avoids it being confused with practices and institutions from the West’s own dark past.

Throughout the lecture, the words Raqabah and Jariya refer only to indentured servants or workers, and not slaves in anyway.

Addendum 2:
Have the Islamic laws on Indentured Servitude been Abrogated by time?

Islamic laws on Indentured Servitude were originally derived from specific Islamic texts. Only revelation can abrogate it.

It’s more accurate to say that Islamic laws on Indentured Servitude (reqaab/jariyat) are currently obsolete in societies where there are no longer Indentured Servants or Slaves i.e. the circumstances they deal with no longer exist

For E.g. If Mauritius had a law banning the hunting of Dodos. The law would be inoperative due to Dodos being extinct, despite the law may still be on the Mauritian legal statute books

The absence of dodo’s would render the law obsolete, regardless
 
It’s more accurate to say that Islamic laws on Indentured Servitude (reqaab/jariyat) are currently obsolete in societies where there are no longer Indentured Servants or Slaves i.e. the circumstances they deal with no longer exist

Islam is supposed to guide the norms and structure of the society rather than the other way around. You are saying that the practice of Islam is to be modified according to the prevailing conditions of the society. That is a slippery slope, and every change can be justified by the plea "that is currently obsolete due to the current form of society".
 
Whatever modern appologist now say, they just cannot change the past.
And with every excuse, they lose their credibility...
 
I think banning slavery may have been detrimental to the leaders of any religion, as war booty (which included the capturing and creation of slaves) is seen as one of the major motivators for soldiers to go to war and expand empires.
 
Islam is supposed to guide the norms and structure of the society rather than the other way around. You are saying that the practice of Islam is to be modified according to the prevailing conditions of the society. That is a slippery slope, and every change can be justified by the plea "that is currently obsolete due to the current form of society".

Well isn't that the case with every other religion anyway? Slavery has been justified in Hinduism, Christianity, Judaism and probably most other ideologies at some point. I would think that in most Islamic nations the concept of slavery has been left behind just as it has in those other nations.
 
https://abdullahalandalusi.com/2017...sponse-to-western-criticism-of-islam-slavery/

6 key points on Islam’s teachings on Reqaab and Jariyaat & the Muslim response to Western criticism of Islam & Slavery
In other words a convoluted way of justifying slavery.

Consequently, Islam transformed former slave owners (masters) into responsible bosses/patrons (‘sayids’), and former slaves into (indentured) servants or workers with a legal obligation to provide economic activity for their bosses in return for food, board (housing) and clothing equvalent to what their bosses would wear. Patrons were prohibited from hitting or striking an indentured servant/worker at whim. The cost of doing so, would be to release the servant/worker from their bond to the patron.
How does that then justify the fact that the children born to these slaves, or 'indentured servants', also automatically became 'indentured servants' (ie slaves) of the 'sayids'/bosses/patrons as soon as the children were born if, according to Islam "everyone is born equal"?

Surely, for these 'indentured servants' to be such should mean that they voluntarily agreed to being 'indentured servants'? And if so, surely that should then also have meant that the children born to these 'indentured servants' had a choice whether or not to follow in their parents footsteps into similar roles, or walk away as free men and women as soon as they reached adulthood?

As I said, a convoluted and pathetic attempt by the article writer to justify slavery on the basis that even though Islam still permitted, it did so without contradicting it's own assertions that 'everyone is born equal'.
 
I think banning slavery may have been detrimental to the leaders of any religion, as war booty (which included the capturing and creation of slaves) is seen as one of the major motivators for soldiers to go to war and expand empires.

I agree with your assessment.

However non religious rule (Cyrus the great) banned selling and buying of slaves in his big empire, though slavery was not properly eliminated.
and this happened 1000+ years before Islam.
 
Well isn't that the case with every other religion anyway? Slavery has been justified in Hinduism,

Unlike Islam, Hinduism does not have one central book or prophet. It is rather a collection of various religious ideas through the millennia. While some Hindus in the past practiced slavery (or even extreme forms of the caste system, which were very bad but nowhere close to slavery), it is for an Hindu to choose which particular form of religion to practice. For example, it is quite possible for a Hindu to pay no attention to Ram and still be a Hindu (like the Shaivites).
 
Unlike Islam, Hinduism does not have one central book or prophet. It is rather a collection of various religious ideas through the millennia. While some Hindus in the past practiced slavery (or even extreme forms of the caste system, which were very bad but nowhere close to slavery), it is for an Hindu to choose which particular form of religion to practice. For example, it is quite possible for a Hindu to pay no attention to Ram and still be a Hindu (like the Shaivites).

Same with Islam, you can have Sunni Muslims, Shia Muslims, Sufi Muslims, Ahmadi Muslims, Druze Muslims Friday only Muslims and so on. This is why there are so many different branches of the faith all with different understandings and interpretations of the various traditions and texts.
 
Moderate Muslims should make a peace with Islamic history and build a new future.
Picking the good deeds and rejecting the bad ones would not convince anyone neutral.

I can mention several incidents when prophet of allah freed slaves and paid from his own pocket and asked his tribe (Banu Hashim) to do the same.

and I can also mention several incidents when he advocated for the sale of slaves.
 
I agree with your assessment.

However non religious rule (Cyrus the great) banned selling and buying of slaves in his big empire, though slavery was not properly eliminated.
and this happened 1000+ years before Islam.

Thats interesting, first time I have heard of a major leader banning slavery in the ancient world. I will look more into this.

Not a good look for muslim scholars though.

Considering their assessment that banning slavery would have been too difficult to insititutionalise and it needed time to slowly evaporate (about a 1000 years after the creation of islam).

It would be a lot less believable if another leader had the audacity to do that very thing a thousand years before the prophet.
 
Moderate Muslims should make a peace with Islamic history and build a new future.
Picking the good deeds and rejecting the bad ones would not convince anyone neutral.

I can mention several incidents when prophet of allah freed slaves and paid from his own pocket and asked his tribe (Banu Hashim) to do the same.

and I can also mention several incidents when he advocated for the sale of slaves.

I believe this is difficult to establish in mainstream Islamic ideology due to its push towards early Muslims being the most perfect and pure of all Muslims whom followed (without even getting into the perfection of prophethood).

If for example my mother were to admit to herself that early muslims did condone slavery,war booty and capturing of females (and sometimes having intercourse with them outside of marriage). This would throw a wrench into her entire belief system.

However the few times I have brought this up around her, she refuses to accept this idea and looks for some sort of excuse for this behaviour (even when I show her hadeeth regarding the issue of slavery and the one whom the right hand possesses).

I don't see this whole conversation as a negative thing though, we are talking about people who lived over 1500 years ago, of course they are not obliged to hold the same moral values that we have steadily created over time since the beginning of human creation.
 
I believe this is difficult to establish in mainstream Islamic ideology due to its push towards early Muslims being the most perfect and pure of all Muslims whom followed (without even getting into the perfection of prophethood).

If for example my mother were to admit to herself that early muslims did condone slavery,war booty and capturing of females (and sometimes having intercourse with them outside of marriage). This would throw a wrench into her entire belief system.

However the few times I have brought this up around her, she refuses to accept this idea and looks for some sort of excuse for this behaviour (even when I show her hadeeth regarding the issue of slavery and the one whom the right hand possesses).

I don't see this whole conversation as a negative thing though, we are talking about people who lived over 1500 years ago, of course they are not obliged to hold the same moral values that we have steadily created over time since the beginning of human creation.

As now it's pretty hard to control the information and it's readily available so new generation will be different from current and previous generation and they would have to face the facts.

However, it's not a necessarily a good thing, as most people need some sort of meaning, purpose in life and need hope and salvation in time of suffering...so if moderate muslims have created a fictional perfect character then it's fine...as its nothing new, Christians, Jews amd other did the same for their religious personalities.

Regarding historical prophet of allah, we may choose to disregard slavery as it was everywhere then, but he also committed several "deeds", which were novel during his time.
 
Thats interesting, first time I have heard of a major leader banning slavery in the ancient world. I will look more into this.

Not a good look for muslim scholars though.

Considering their assessment that banning slavery would have been too difficult to insititutionalise and it needed time to slowly evaporate (about a 1000 years after the creation of islam).

It would be a lot less believable if another leader had the audacity to do that very thing a thousand years before the prophet.

He also claimed divinity.

In fact almost all conquerors of the past claimed divinity of some sort. That includes Alexander and Ghengis. Some claimed to be divine, others claimed to be the vessel and some as off-spring. The bottom line being that they used it as a tool to get the masses to do their bidding.

So this claim of divinity isn't unique at all to the prophet of Islam.

Back to slavery. I think it's disgusting that anyone tries to justify this grave injustice against humanity. To subjugate a humans entire existence to servitude of a master is the greatest sin that one can commit.
 
I believe this is difficult to establish in mainstream Islamic ideology due to its push towards early Muslims being the most perfect and pure of all Muslims whom followed (without even getting into the perfection of prophethood).

If for example my mother were to admit to herself that early muslims did condone slavery,war booty and capturing of females (and sometimes having intercourse with them outside of marriage). This would throw a wrench into her entire belief system.

However the few times I have brought this up around her, she refuses to accept this idea and looks for some sort of excuse for this behaviour (even when I show her hadeeth regarding the issue of slavery and the one whom the right hand possesses).

I don't see this whole conversation as a negative thing though, we are talking about people who lived over 1500 years ago, of course they are not obliged to hold the same moral values that we have steadily created over time since the beginning of human creation.

They are obliged if they claim to be perfect and for all times.
 
As now it's pretty hard to control the information and it's readily available so new generation will be different from current and previous generation and they would have to face the facts.

However, it's not a necessarily a good thing, as most people need some sort of meaning, purpose in life and need hope and salvation in time of suffering...so if moderate muslims have created a fictional perfect character then it's fine...as its nothing new, Christians, Jews amd other did the same for their religious personalities.

Regarding historical prophet of allah, we may choose to disregard slavery as it was everywhere then, but he also committed several "deeds", which were novel during his time.

The age of information will probably have a greater effect on Islam than Martin Luther had on Christianity.
 
There are a number of things which muslims are against but it won't conflict with their belief system, if Islam permitted slavery and you don't agree with it; it doesn't make you a non-muslim given the belief in the oness of god, others would look to define them as such and point to how imperfect their faith is but each to their own, you can't force someone to believe in the slavery now, sensible muslims are disassociating from it but am not sure what the end goal is from the POV of the non believers.
 
Slavery should have been banned by all religions. It does not matter if so and so only partially practiced or made amendments to previous forms.

If someone claims to be either God or messenger of God, then God should have told them to ban slavery right away. Not make amendments and continue this horrible practice.
 
Do they have an email address? Maybe we can contact them and remind them of their obligations to desist from slavery in the 21st century.

Sure. You don't need an email. They have left you sufficient literature, which if they are to be believed is for eternity.

If you do send them that email please also contain how they reconcile being perfect in every way whilst keeping slaves.

Also mention how their doctorine which is meant to be for eternity when their believers are now disassociating from such deeds?

This is going down the same route every interaction we have had. So start your circus act and when exposed, pretend you were being facetious for your own amusement.

I don't think anyone would ever mistake you for an erudite individual but it would be refreshing if for once you provided something of substance rather than then usual futile attempts to disrupt analysis.
 
Sure. You don't need an email. They have left you sufficient literature, which if they are to be believed is for eternity.

If you do send them that email please also contain how they reconcile being perfect in every way whilst keeping slaves.

Also mention how their doctorine which is meant to be for eternity when their believers are now disassociating from such deeds?

This is going down the same route every interaction we have had. So start your circus act and when exposed, pretend you were being facetious for your own amusement.

I don't think anyone would ever mistake you for an erudite individual but it would be refreshing if for once you provided something of substance rather than then usual futile attempts to disrupt analysis.

Is there any modern day nation where slavery is sanctioned currently as per the founding fathers of the faith? There was ISIS of course, but they weren't officially recognised as such by the rest of the world. Iran Perhaps? Pakistan? Kuwait?
 
Slavery should have been banned by all religions. It does not matter if so and so only partially practiced or made amendments to previous forms.

If someone claims to be either God or messenger of God, then God should have told them to ban slavery right away. Not make amendments and continue this horrible practice.

As long as the horrible practice is stopped, I don't really think it makes much difference about the reasons why. Christianity, Hinduism and other religions all used texts in the past to justify slavery, but they were amended or discarded with time to reflect new realities. There was no need to ban the religions themselves, as long as the end result was the one required.
 
As long as the horrible practice is stopped, I don't really think it makes much difference about the reasons why. Christianity, Hinduism and other religions all used texts in the past to justify slavery, but they were amended or discarded with time to reflect new realities. There was no need to ban the religions themselves, as long as the end result was the one required.

Religions are based on the fact that they are revealed or originated from the infalliable, uber powerful God. If God makes mistakes by allowing Slavery, then that God is not really infalliable.

If people agree that their God(s) also makes mistakes and not always right, then it is understandable. But people and religious scriptures claim otherwise.
 
Religions are based on the fact that they are revealed or originated from the infalliable, uber powerful God. If God makes mistakes by allowing Slavery, then that God is not really infalliable.

If people agree that their God(s) also makes mistakes and not always right, then it is understandable. But people and religious scriptures claim otherwise.

Really? So there are some people who agree on religious scripts in the last thousand plus years and others who don't? Yes, I think that's probably a fair assessment.
 
In fact almost all conquerors of the past claimed divinity of some sort. That includes Alexander and Ghengis. Some claimed to be divine, others claimed to be the vessel and some as off-spring. The bottom line being that they used it as a tool to get the masses to do their bidding.
Never mind history, this concept of being divine, or having direct links to divinity, still exists even in the most Western and liberalised societies.

Heck, the Queen (and the future King when she dies or abdicates) is the Queen and Head of State, and Head of the Church of England, on the basis that she has been 'appointed by God'. And thus why the National Anthem is "God save the Queen"
 
^^^ Just to add:
The Queen has to sign off (give royal assent to) each and every law passed by the UK Parliament before it can become law. In theory (although hasn't happened for hundreds of years) the Queen can refuse to do so and veto it from becoming law.

However, it is claimed that the Queen (and Prince Charles) regularly intervene and ensure that Government Ministers don't go against her wishes by amending any laws she (or Prince Charles) have strong views about before they are even put to Parliamentary vote thereby ensuring that the need to refuse giving royal assent never arises.
ie Pulling the strings in the background.
 
Never mind history, this concept of being divine, or having direct links to divinity, still exists even in the most Western and liberalised societies.

Heck, the Queen (and the future King when she dies or abdicates) is the Queen and Head of State, and Head of the Church of England, on the basis that she has been 'appointed by God'. And thus why the National Anthem is "God save the Queen"

Well people are still pretty dumb for the most part when it comes to esoteric beliefs, now imagine how dumb they would have been thousands of years ago. And for every idiot there is a sociopath waiting to take advantage of that by claiming divinity or justification for ruling over a class of people. "Its Gods will".

I'm sure it goes further back to our caveman days where a bunch of dummies looked at the moon in wonder while another used this to his advantage "the moon told me you should bring me all your bananas".
 
Well people are still pretty dumb for the most part when it comes to esoteric beliefs, now imagine how dumb they would have been thousands of years ago. And for every idiot there is a sociopath waiting to take advantage of that by claiming divinity or justification for ruling over a class of people. "Its Gods will".

I'm sure it goes further back to our caveman days where a bunch of dummies looked at the moon in wonder while another used this to his advantage "the moon told me you should bring me all your bananas".

IK is one of such sociopath :)
 
All people who want to be leaders are sociopaths, i just choose to roll with the least greedy one.

seems like an apologetic response :)

basically I wanted to point out that one does not need to be dumb to be a blind (or semi-blind) follower cause there is an evolutionary basis to all this.
 
seems like an apologetic response :)

basically I wanted to point out that one does not need to be dumb to be a blind (or semi-blind) follower cause there is an evolutionary basis to all this.

Not apologetic at all, its called logic.

I mean thats if we are discussing Pakistani politics right now?
 
Not apologetic at all, its called logic.

I mean thats if we are discussing Pakistani politics right now?

Same parts of brain light up, doesn's matter if one follows a prophet, cult leader, a hero or a demagogue.
And if you ask any believer, he/she would tell that his/her faith is based on "logic", "truth", "facts", "nature" etc.
 
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